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The Capitulation on the Biblical Doctrine of the Perfect Preservation of Scripture

Does the Bible suddenly change its meaning?  When God speaks on a certain subject in His Word, do we take what He says as the truth or do we conform it to naturalistic or humanistic presuppositions?  I ask these question especially here about the biblical doctrine of the perfect preservation of scripture.

Master’s Seminary and John MacArthur

I was watching an interview of the leaders of the Master’s Seminary about its founding, including John MacArthur, and I came to a crucial, foundational section of the interview.  A little after the 15 minute mark, MacArthur said:

Obviously I have a very strong commitment to the Word of God and to its accurate interpretation and to sound doctrine. . . . [We needed] to come up with our own exhaustive doctrinal statement. . . . [A] seminary has to have a unified doctrinal statement. . . . We didn’t have any wiggle room.  It was sound doctrine or nothing, and we were going to fight for that at all costs. . . . We tightened everything we could tighten with a very detailed doctrine that to this day is still our statement with some more refinement.

Even now we’re doing some refinement, having it right.  It was in order to maintain sound doctrine and have a solid, unified set of convictions all the way from theology proper and bibliology down to ecclesiology and even eschatology, the whole thing.  And that’s what’s been defining for us.  And here we’ve been doing this since 1986 and nothing has moved.

Bibliology Statement at Master’s Seminary

When I heard MacArthur say this over a week ago, I wondered about the bibliology statement in the seminary doctrinal statement, so I looked it up. Here’s the fundamental part of what it says, the first four paragraphs:

We teach that the Bible is God’s written revelation to man, and thus the sixty-six books of the Bible given to us by the Holy Spirit constitute the plenary (inspired equally in all parts) Word of God (1 Corinthians 2:7-14; 2 Peter 1:20-21).

We teach that the Word of God is an objective, propositional revelation (1 Thessalonians 2:13; 1 Corinthians 2:13), verbally inspired in every word (2 Timothy 3:16), absolutely inerrant in the original documents, infallible, and God-breathed.

We teach the literal, grammatical, historical interpretation of Scripture which affirms the belief that the opening chapters of Genesis present creation in six literal days (Genesis 1:31; Exodus 31:17), describe the special creation of man and woman (Genesis 1:26-28; 2:5-25), and define marriage as between one man and one woman (Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:5). Scripture elsewhere dictates that any sexual activity outside of marriage is an abomination before the Lord (Exodus 20:14; Leviticus 18:13; Matthew 5:27-32; 19:1-9; 1 Corinthians 5:1-5; 6:9-10; 1 Thessalonians. 4:1-7).

We teach that the Bible constitutes the only infallible rule of faith and practice (Matthew 5:18; 24:35; John 10:35; 16:12-13; 17:17; 1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:15-17; Hebrews 4:12; 2 Peter 1:20-21).

As you read that, maybe you think it’s a boilerplate, typical orthodox, scriptural, and historical statement of bibliology.  In a statement on bibliology, in the first four paragraphs Master’s Seminary gave a gigantic chunk of space to interpretational philosophy, emphasizing a young earth interpretation and biblical definition of marriage.  I’m fine with including that, but how do you include that and say nothing about the preservation of scripture?

The Bible and the Preservation of Scripture

Does the Bible teach its own preservation?  Does it say anything about that?  Did you notice in the second paragraph on inspiration, it applies verbal inspiration and inerrancy and infallibility to the “original manuscripts”?  After a third paragraph on interpretation, a fourth paragraph then says “the Bible constitutes the only infallible rule of faith and practice.”  According to the statement, the Bible itself is not infallible, except in the original manuscripts, yet it still constitutes an infallible rule of faith and practice.  These types of conclusions do not follow the premises for them.

The physical original manuscripts (autographa) do not exist.  No one can look at them to get a rule of faith and practice.  People can look only at copies of copies (apographa) of the original manuscripts.  Without a doctrine of preservation, one cannot conclude an infallible rule of faith and practice.  Is there no doctrine of preservation of scripture in the Bible?

MacArthur states in the interview that he obviously has a very strong commitment to the Word of God.  Does he have a strong commitment to the Bible’s teaching on the preservation of scripture?  He commits to six day creation based on his scriptural presuppositions.  MacArthur commits to a biblical definition of marriage.  The statement includes nothing about preservation of scripture.  Is he committed to the teaching of the Word of God on its own preservation?  I don’t see it.

Legacy Standard Bible

The same Master’s Seminary faculty took the project of the Legacy Standard Bible (LSB).  Upon its completion in 2021, the editors of the LSB wrote in its preface:

The Legacy Standard Bible has the benefit of a number of critical Greek texts in determining the best variant reading to translate. The 27th edition of Eberhard Nestle’s Novum Testamentum Graece, supplemented by the 28th edition in the General Epistles, serve as the base text. On every variant reading the Society of Biblical Literature GNT as well as the Tyndale House GNT were also consulted. In the end, each decision was based upon the current available manuscript evidence.

This statement alone reveals a rejection of perfect preservation.  Instead of God preserving His Words perfectly as scripture teaches, it reflects a failed attempt at restoration of the original text God inspired.  This helps explain the doctrinal statement leaving out a doctrine of preservation.  What does the Bible teach about a believers expectations between AD100 and the present regarding the preservation of scripture?

Even if the evidence of modern science says the world is a billion years old, a believer accepts the revelation of the first chapter of Genesis.  He explains the science according to scripture, because scripture is truth.  Even if the evidence of modern science says that there are errors in present printed editions of the original language Bible, a believer accepts the doctrine of the preservation passages.  It also says that men alone have the task of preserving scripture like any other book.  Everyone either begins with a naturalistic or a supernaturalistic presupposition, and no one is neutral.

Preaching on Preservation

When exposing the text in front of him, MacArthur has said the following, first on Matthew 24:35:

Finally, Jesus said this: “Heaven and earth shall pass away, but My words” – what? – “shall not pass away.” That is an unchanging authority. And He closes the parable with an unchanging authority. “My Word shall not pass away.” In Luke 16:17, He said heaven and earth will pass away and it’s easier for them to do that than for one tittle out of the law to pass away. He said not one jot or one tittle in Matthew 5:18 will pass away until all is fulfilled. In John 10:35, He said Scripture cannot be broken. And so if we believe the Word of God, we believe this is going to happen – it’s going to happen.

So in a sermon to people, who sit there thinking that Almighty God will preserve His Words, it sounds like he preaches perfect preservation.  But no, ‘we really don’t believe that.’  ‘We just say that in the texts that say that.’

Master’s Seminary has no statement on preservation of scripture, because it does not believe in the preservation of scripture.  It does not believe that someone can prove the preservation of scripture on exegetical grounds.  It says God inspired every word on exegetical grounds, but it doesn’t say on exegetical grounds that God then preserved every one of those words.  The seminary says that God nowhere in scripture promised that He would preserve His Word.  Historic Christianity writes doctrinal statements that say something different.

Historical Bibliology on Preservation of Scripture

The London Baptist Confession of 1689 says:

The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which at the time of the writing of it was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and by His singular care and providence kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentic; so as in all controversies of religion, the church is finally to appeal to them.

Dutch Theologian Herman Bavink (1854-1921) wrote in The Sacrifice of Praise (p. 21):

All scripture was not only once given by inspiration of God but it is also as such continually preserved by God by His Almighty and everywhere present power.

In a book, Fundamentalism Versus Modernism (1925), Eldred Vanderlaan wrote:

Christ guarantees that as a part of the sacred text neither the tittle or the yod shall perish.

In a Chronological Treatise Upon the Seventy Weeks of Daniel (1725), Benjamin Marshall wrote:

And as not one jot or tittle of the former was to pass without being fulfilled, so neither could one jot, or tittle of the latter pass away without being accomplished.  Consequently not one jot or tittle, much less could one word. . . . pass away. . . , without its actual completion, and full accomplishment in the express letter of it.

Believing God’s Promise of Preservation

A multitude of passages in scripture teach in their context the perfect preservation of scripture (see our book, Thou Shalt Keep Them, here and here).  God promised He would preserve every one of His written Words unto every generation of believer.  It’s interesting to me what men, who have been in the same orbit as MacArthur, say about the sovereignty of God.  R. C. Sproul famously wrote and said:

If there is one maverick molecule in the universe, one molecule running loose outside the scope of God’s sovereign ordination, then ladies and gentlemen, there is not the slightest confidence that you can have that any promise that God has ever made about the future will come to pass.

It amazes me that they can believe that every molecule functions under the control of God, but God would not and did not fulfill His promises of perfect preservation of scripture.

The Doctrine of Inspiration of Scripture and Translation (Part Five)

Part One    Part Two    Part Three    Part Four

God Gave Words in their Original Languages and Preserved Them

In Scripture

Part of the story of the doctrine of inspiration of scripture and then its translation relates to languages.  God immediately inspired the original manuscripts of scripture in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.  God gave scripture in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.  God also used His church in an institutional sense or His true churches to give witness to Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.  This fulfilled the scriptural instruction to keep the Lord’s Words.

The Lord Jesus Christ said in Matthew 5:18, “For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”  A jot is the smallest consonant in the Hebrew alphabet.  A tittle is a vowel point, which is small.  Some evangelicals say the tittle is a part of a Hebrew letter that distinguishes it from another Hebrew letter.  Either way, jots and tittles refer to Hebrew letters.  That says that God promised to preserve what He gave by inspiration, which is the original text.

In History

Jesus Christ Himself, God in the flesh, says that ‘not one jot nor one tittle shall pass from the law.’  The Lord establishes one particular detail of preservation.  That detail is this:  He preserves His Words, the very letters, in the language in which they were written.  We can see that churches believed this point of Jesus in the London Baptist Confession, when it says:

The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which at the time of the writing of it was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and by His singular care and providence kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentic; so as in all controversies of religion, the church is finally to appeal to them.

Text, Translation, and Meaning

Churches should and do go to the original texts for their final appeal in all controversies of religion.  This answers the question, “How did people understand the passage who heard it in the day of its writing?”  The final appeal does not go to an English translation.

Someone could then ask, “Does everyone then need to know the original languages?”  The same London Baptist Confession says next:

But because these original tongues are not known to all the people of God, who have a right unto, and interest in the Scriptures, and are commanded in the fear of God to read, and search them, therefore they are to be translated into the vulgar language of every nation unto which they come, that the Word of God dwelling plentifully in all, they may worship Him in an acceptable manner, and through patience and comfort of the Scriptures may have hope.

I did not write Matthew 5:18.  I did not write the London Baptist Confession on that point that Jesus made.  However, I believe Jesus and what true churches believed and taught on this doctrine.  For sure, I’m not abnormal on this.

A bit of logic could come into play.  If the true Word of God was an English translation in the 17th century or an edition of it in the 18th century, could true churches believe and live what God said for the previous sixteen centuries?  Anyone should ask that.  If man lives by God’s Words, it assumes He possesses them.  Part of the doctrine of preservation is the doctrine of availability.  Denial of general accessibility is denial of God’s promise of perfect preservation of scripture.

Studying the Original Text of Scripture

Meaning

For someone reading this essay today, you should know that you can look up a word in the English translation to find the Hebrew, Greek, or Aramaic word.  I know many who put in the effort to do that.  Even those who never took one day of a course in biblical languages can know the Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic word.  In the church I pastor right now, when I refer to a Greek word, a man looks it up on his phone to see.  The one, who does not know original languages, checks me out.  I welcome it.

Grammar and Syntax

I would expect further study than the meaning of the words in their original language, but that is a very good start.  A great one.  Yes, people should know grammar and syntax, but I find that a large majority of people do not know grammar or syntax in any language.  Some of the people who criticize our use of original languages here do not rely on grammar and syntax either.

For a moment, consider the expertise of grammar and syntax, even in an English version.  Isn’t that an expertise too?  Does the Bible come with a grammar book?  Does scripture come with a syntax guide?  It doesn’t.  In a sense, someone uses a glossary of extra-scriptural terms to apply to the study of the Bible.

The words “verb,” “noun,” and “adjective” are outside of God’s Word.  To be consistent, original language deniers should criticize the requirement of grammar and syntax.  “Don’t make me learn the word ‘participle’!”  I don’t know; maybe they complain about that too.  Perhaps they are grammar deniers as well.

You will miss a portion of the meaning of scripture if you rely only on a translation.  It helps to know the range of semantic meaning of a word.  You can understand from the original text the tense, mood, or voice of verbs or participles.  Going to the original text for meaning will help a student of God’s Word.  God gave His Words in those original languages.

Points in the Text Not In Translation

Hebrew Acrostics

Did God give the book of Lamentations in a Hebrew acrostic?  Yes.  Someone cannot see that in a translation.  Does that also affect the interpretation of the book?  Yes.  The third chapter is a triple acrostic by starting triplets of verses with the same Hebrew letter.  This also provides a chiastic structure that tips the point of the whole book in the absolute middle of the book.

Several Old Testament passages structure each section of poetry to start with a successive letter of the Hebrew alphabet. Psalm 119 is a well-known example of this, but also Psalms 9-10, 25, 34, 37, 111, 112, 145, Proverbs 31:10-31; and Nahum 1:2-8.

Poetic Word Plays

The Lord also used poetic word plays all over the Hebrew Old Testament one cannot see in a translation.  Does God expect someone to recognize those word plays?  Yes.  You will start seeing word plays in the early chapters of Genesis and then continue seeing them all the way through the Old Testament.

In Genesis 1:2, “without form and void” translated tohu and bohu in the Hebrew, which is paranomastic, a rhyming effect.  We don’t get this rhyming effect in English.  One aspect of beauty or aesthetics are these devices of language.  God gives them to us, not to miss them.

“One of his ribs” in Genesis 2:21 and “bone of my bones” in Genesis 2:23 are a Hebrew word play.   God (and Moses) reverse the consonants of “rib” and “bone.”  It’s intentional and easily spotted in Hebrew, but not in a translation. We are meant to see the life connection between “rib” and “bone.”

God uses an obvious pun between Adam and the Hebrew word ’adamah, meaning “earth.”  The Hebrew ’adam means “man.”  In the chapter introducing the first man, Genesis 2:5 says, “there was not a man [‘adam] to till the ground [‘adamah].”  Later then, Genesis 3:19 says, “In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust [‘adamah] shalt thou return.”  These Hebrew word plays are distinct from a translation.

God cares about these word plays.  He used them.  They mean something.  He has not shelved them for translations of the original text.  When someone cannot see an acrostic or poetic word play, He does not witness something God wrote.  Any true believer should want to know this.  It is a reason why God gives churches pastors.

Different Words

In the King James Version, the translators translated different Greek words with identical English words.  They also translated identical Greek words with different English words.  Someone would not know that by the translation.  I ask you to consider 1 Corinthians 13:8:

Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.

“They shall fail” and “it shall vanish away” both translate the same Greek word, katargeo.  You would not know that by the translation.  I believe it is very helpful to know that, even for the interpretation of the passage.  “They shall cease” translates a completely different Greek word than the other two in the series, and yet all three are translated differently, as if there are three different words.  There are just two, not three.

On the other hand, “miracle” translates two Greek words:  semeion (Acts 4:22) and dunamis (Mark 9:39).  You would not know that by the English translation.  Sometimes, very often, the translators translated semeion, “sign,” as if “miracle” and “sign” might be something different.

Do we decide the words and the meaning by the English translation?  Do we now say, there are three different words in 1 Corinthians 13:8?  Do we say that miracle is just one word, because that’s the way it looks in the English?  Our decisions on these issues come from the original text, not the translation.

Originalism

Obeying God by rightly dividing the word of truth (1 Tim 2:15) requires originalism.  Originalism means the original biblical text ought to be given the original public meaning that it would have had at the time that God gave it by inspiration.  The Bible doesn’t change in meaning from the original text given to the original audience of scripture.  The text means what the author meant and he wrote it in an original language.  Scripture cannot mean something different than what it originally meant.

God preserved His Words to fulfill His promise of preservation.  He did it for the right understanding of meaning.  God also preserved those Words because His communication of meaning comes through those original Words.  An accurate translation of a perfectly preserved text is not superior to the perfect preserved text.  That translation comes from that text.

The White-Ross Debate: Who Won?

Watch the Debate

White and Ross Arguments

White’s Presentation

In mid-February, James White debated Thomas Ross about which was better, the Legacy Standard Bible (LSB) or the King James Version (KJV).  White argues with an entirely naturalistic presupposition, saying that only manuscript evidence shows the underlying text of the KJV, the Textus Receptus (TR), is worse than that of the LSB, the Nestles Aland critical text (NA).  Furthermore, he says the KJV uses archaic words and has less information for an accurate translation of certain technical words.  He also tries to demonstrate some translation errors in the KJV, not in the LSB.

Ross’s Scriptural Presuppositions

Ross argues with a scriptural presupposition.  The TR is superior to the NA based on the doctrine of preservation. The TR meets God’s promises of preservation in His Word.  Ross asserts and then proves that scripture teaches verbal plenary original language preservation by means of true churches for every generation of believers.  He also shows this identical teaching is the historical position clearly believed by the church, relying on the same passages.  The NA is absent from its confessions or published materials.  The TR only fits a scriptural and historical presupposition.

On the other hand, Ross shows that we know that the NA text was not in use for at least 1000 years.  That isn’t preservation.  Founders and proponents of the critical text, such as Wescott and Hort, deny the scriptural and historical doctrine of preservation.  Like White, they take an only naturalistic presupposition and method.  This alone is enough to say the TR/KJV is superior to the NA/LSB, because the latter does not proceed from biblical presuppositions or methods.

Naturalistic, Manuscript Evidence

Conjectural Emendations

In addition, even using naturalistic means, the sole criteria of White, Ross shows the NA is inferior to the TR.  Ross gives evidence that the editors of the NA 27th edition, the underlying text for the LSB, used over 100 “explicit conjectural emendations.”  He provides two examples of this in Acts 16:12 and 2 Peter 3:10.  This debunks the one apparent example of conjectural emendation in the TR in Revelation 16:5.

Over 100 conjectural emendations is worse than the one example of White.  Reader, do you understand the truth here?  It’s a hypocritical argument that doesn’t work.  Please do not give a blind eye to this out of sheer loyalty to White and his winning a debate.  This is the truth.  It shouldn’t matter how fast Thomas Ross said it.  Speaking fast is a red herring as an argument.

No Manuscript Evidence

White asserts no manuscript evidence for one NT reading, the one in Revelation 16:5.  He says there is light evidence for one word in Ephesians 3:9 and the Comma Johanneum in 1 John 5:7.  Ross shows there is no manuscript evidence for at least 41 separate lines of text in the NA, evidenced by Swanson in his New Testament Greek Manuscripts:  Variant Readings Arranged in Horizontal Lines against Codex Vaticanus.  None of this occurs in the TR.  Based on the ratio of Matthew and Mark text to the rest of the New Testament, that would result in 191 total for the NT.

How could textual critics publish a text like described?  Even as a so-called science, textual critics don’t see their work as a science at all.  Ross quotes this from Metzger and Ehrman in their foremost book on textual criticism.  They don’t see anyone able to refer to the text as an original text.  This strongly contradicts the position of the church based on biblical presuppositions.  Ross quotes White himself in his debate with Douglas Wilson, that we will never have a certain text.

On the issue of the text alone, Ross blows away White.  The TR is by far a superior text.  When White mentions the papyri, Ross shows him the earliest, P52, a piece of the gospel of John that is identical to the TR.  After praising the papyri, White changes tunes and says that it was a very small fragment, attempting to have it both ways.  Relying on Pickering and Hoskier, Ross shows how that there are long sections of identical readings of the TR in the manuscripts.  He includes photos of these.

White Attacks on Ross

White tries to attack the KJV by bringing up one possible conjectural emendation, one for which apparently Beza says he had a manuscript.  One word in Ephesians 3:9 has limited manuscript support.  He attacks the TR reading in 1 John 5:7.  White doesn’t rely on scriptural presuppositions.  Counting manuscripts and their age, that’s what he’s got.  This is not how believers approached this issue.  White himself says that the NA wasn’t available for hundreds of years.  He speaks like this is a good thing.  It is an obvious admittance, that Ross pointed out, that God did not preserve his text.

To be honest, White should accede to the Ross argument about no manuscript evidence for NA readings in 41 places in Matthew and Mark.  Instead, he starts talking like they don’t matter for the translation.  This shows a double standard.  He attacks the TR in Revelation 16:5, one place, and excuses 41 places.  He even apologizes for the NA27, the basis of the LSB, what he’s trying to defend in the debate.  White says he doesn’t trust the editors, but he does his own textual criticism.

The Translation Issue

White spends some time on the translation issue.  Ross answered him.  The Granville Sharp rule doesn’t hurt the translation of the KJV in Titus 2:13.  The LSB is fine there.  Ross makes the point that Jude 1:4 fits the Granville Sharp in the KJV, while in the LSB, it does not.  That point received crickets from White.  Relating to the lexical issue of technical terms, Ross says that they’re still difficult to understand for identifying what those animals and minerals were.  The lexical aids can help in understanding, but they do not resolve this issue in either the KJV and LSB.

Ross and White spent time discussing the translation of the Hebrew of Yawheh or Jehovah (or LORD) in the Old Testament.  Ross referred to the pronunciation of the vowel points, a fine argument.  Ross also gave a good answer on “servant” or “slave.”  The Hebrew word is not always our modern understanding of “slave.”

Other Problems for White

White said he believed we have all the words in all of the manuscript evidence, and yet he contradicts himself in 1 Samuel 13:1, pointed out by Ross.  White doesn’t believe there is a manuscript with the wording of that verse.  I guess people don’t care about that contradiction.  He doesn’t believe in preservation, we know that from his Douglas Wilson answer, exposed by Ross in the debate.

As well, White referred to a Hebrews reference to the prophet Jeremiah.  He said the author quoted the Greek Septuagint, essentially arguing that the author of Hebrews and then Jesus in the Gospels used a corrupt text.  Modern critical text advocates use this Septuagint argument as a kind of scriptural presupposition.

Ross gave White a good answer on the Septuagint question, referring to the theology of John Owen.  Owen answered this point in his writings.  He also quoted the introduction of a standard academic text on the Septuagint by Jobes and Silva, taking the same position as Owen espoused.  This debunks the false view that Jesus and other NT authors would have quoted a terribly corrupted text and translation of the Old Testament.

Style Points?

In the end, White had to attack Thomas Ross for his style, reading too fast and having too many slides.  Come on.  Keep it to the subject at hand.  Easily, someone could attack White for style.  White broad brushes TR and King James supporters with inflammatory language all the time.  When Ross shook his hand at the end and gave him a book, White sat there looking disdainful.  White attacked his character after the debate, saying he was showing off.  He almost always name-drops and mentions his debate of Bart Ehrman and his 180 debates as automatic winning credentials.

In the comment section of the videos, people attack Ross for mentioning winning the debate.  They are debating.  If White won, his followers would say this again and again.  It’s a picky criticism.  There is criteria for a debate.  Ross negates the affirmative of White and puts him on the defensive.  That’s the definition of winning a debate.

Answering Questions

Some people have said that Ross didn’t answer White’s questions.  I ask them, which did he not answer?  They are silent.  White, attacking Ross for perfect preservation, something the debate wasn’t about, tries to catch Ross in a gotcha moment by asking about Revelation 16:5.  Ross says that he sympathizes with Beza’s having a manuscript with the word there.  That is an answer.

White asks Ross if the King James translators could have done a better job in Acts 5:30.  Ross said they were both fine, but KJV wasn’t wrong.  That is an answer too.  Like Ross, I believe the KJV is an accurate translation.  That doesn’t mean I or he wouldn’t translate it differently.

On sheer content alone, Ross crushed White in this debate.  He wins because of his scriptural presuppositions.  The Bible is the truth.  Where the Bible speaks, that is reality.  Anything that contradicts it is false.  Even on the evidence, Ross won, because based on White criteria, he showed the NA had weak to no manuscript evidence.  White tried to avoid this, just by saying that Ross misrepresented the evidence.  Ross didn’t.  White was not prepared for this argument. It’s not going to change either, because that evidence is still true.

 

If the Perfectly Preserved Greek New Testament Is the Textus Receptus, Which TR Edition Is It? Pt. 1

The Bible claims that God wrote it word for word.  God also promised to preserve it word for word in the same languages in which He wrote it.  Through history, Christians believed this, even with the reality of copyist errors, what men now call textual variants.   Professing Christian leaders today challenge the assertion of the perfect preservation of scripture.

Kevin Bauder wrote, Only One Bible?, the answer to which is, “Yes.”  Of course there is only one Bible.  His assumption though is, “No, there is more than one.” To Bauder and those like him, the answer to the title of the book is obvious “No.”  In their world, within a certain percentage of variation between them, several Bibles can and do exist.  Bauder wrote:

If they are willing to accept a manuscript or a text that might omit any words (even a single word) from the originals, or that might add any words (even a single word) to the originals, then their whole position is falsified. . . . If preservation does not really have to include every word, then the whole controversy is no more than a debate over percentages.

The “Which TR?” question also deals with Bauder’s point.  Are any of the editions of the TR without error?  If so, which one?  When you say “Scrivener’s” to Bauder and others, you are admitting a type of English trajectory to the perfect Greek text.  When you say, “One of the TR editions is very, very close, but not perfect,” then you surrender on the issue of perfection.  That’s why they ask the question.

The TR never meant one printed edition.  Even Kurt and Barbara Aland the famed textual critics, the “A” in “NA” (Nestles-Aland), wrote (“The Text of the Church?” in Trinity Journal, Fall, 1987, p.131):

[I]t is undisputed that from the 16th to the 18th century orthodoxy’s doctrine of verbal inspiration assumed this Textus Receptus. It was the only Greek text they knew, and they regarded it as the ‘original text.’

He also wrote in his The Text of the New Testament (p. 11):

We can appreciate better the struggle for freedom from the dominance of the Textus Receptus when we remember that in this period it was regarded even to the last detail the inspired and infallible word of God himself.

His wife Barbara writes in her book, The Text of the New Testament (pp. 6-7):

[T]he Textus Receptus remained the basic text and its authority was regarded as canonical. . . . Every theologian of the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries (and not just the exegetical scholars) worked from an edition of the Greek text of the New Testament which was regarded as the “revealed text.” This idea of verbal inspiration (i. e., of the literal and inerrant inspiration of the text) which the orthodoxy of both Protestant traditions maintained so vigorously, was applied to the Textus Receptus.

I say all that, because Aland accurately does not refer to an edition of the TR, neither does he speak of the TR like it is an edition.  It isn’t.  That is invented language used as a reverse engineering argument by critical text proponents, differing with the honest proposition of Aland, quoted above.  They very often focus on Desiderius Erasmus and his first printed edition of the Greek New Testament.  That’s not how believers viewed what the Van Kleecks call the Standard Sacred Text, others call the Ecclesiastical Text, and still others the Traditional Text.

Neither does Bruce Metzger refer to an edition of the Textus Receptus; only to the Textus Receptus (The Text of the New Testament: Its Transmission, Corruption, and Restoration, 4th ed. [Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2005], pp. 106-251):

Having secured . . . preeminence, what came to be called the Textus Receptus of the New Testament resisted for 400 years all scholarly effort to displace it. . . . [The] “Textus Receptus,” or commonly received, standard text . . . makes the boast that “[the reader has] the text now received by all, in which we give nothing changed or corrupted.” . . . [This] form of Greek text . . . succeeded in establishing itself as “the only true text” of the New Testament and was slavishly reprinted in hundreds of subsequent editions. It lies at the basis of the King James Version and of all the principal Protestant translations in the languages of Europe prior to 1881.  [T]he reverence accorded the Textus Receptus. . . [made] attempts to criticize or emend it . . . akin to sacrilege. . . . For almost two centuries . . . almost all of the editors of the New Testament during this period were content to reprint the time-honored . . . Textus Receptus. . . . In the early days of . . . determining textual groupings . . . the manuscript was collated against the Textus Receptus . . . . This procedure made sense to scholars, who understood the Textus Receptus as the original text of the New Testament, for then variations from it would be “agreements in error.”

The Textus Receptus does not refer to a single printed edition of the New Testament.  The language of a received text proceeds from true believers in a time before the printing press in hand copies and then leading to the period of its printing.  Belief in perfection of the preservation of scripture comes from promises of God in His Word.  The Critical Text advocate responds: “Yes, but we see variations between hand written copies and even the printed editions.”  What do they mean by this response?

Critical Text advocates are saying that in light of textual variants, those preservation passages must mean something other than perfect, divine preservation of scripture.  They say that they can’t be used to teach perfect preservation of scripture anymore, like historically true Christians have taught them, because textual variants show that teaching can’t be true.  What divinely inspired or supernatural scripture says is then not the truth, but apparent natural evidence is the truth.  When they talk about the truth, they aren’t talking about scripture.  They are talking about the speculation of textual criticism by textual critics, mostly unbelieving.

Bruce Metzger wrote in The Text of the New Testament (the one quoted above and here in p. 219 and p. 340):  “Textual criticism is not a branch of mathematics, nor indeed an exact science at all. . . . We must acknowledge that we simply do not know what the author originally wrote.”  He and Bart Ehrman say much more like that quotation, but this is why I called modern textual criticism, “speculation.”  Critical text advocates should not call their speculation, “truth.”

You might ask, “So are you going to answer the question in the title of this post?”  Yes.  God preserved the New Testament perfectly in the Textus Receptus, not in one printed edition.  This has always been my position.  Here is how I (and others, like Thomas Ross) would describe this.

First, Scripture promises that God will forever preserve every one of His written words, which are Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek ones (Ps 12:6-7, 33:11, 119:152, 160; Is 30:8, 40:8; 1 Pet 1:23-25; Mt 5:18, 24:35).   God promised the preservation of words, not ink, paper, or particular printed editions.  They were specific words, and not a generalized word.

Second, Scripture promises the general availability of every one of His Words to every generation of believers (Dt 29:29; 30:11-14; Is 34:16, 59:21; Mt 4:4; 5:18-19; 2 Pet 3:2; Jude 17).  Yes, the Words are in heaven, but they are also on earth, available to believers.  This does not guarantee His Words to unbelievers, just to believers.  If the words were not available, those were not His Words.  The Words He preserved could not be unavailable for at least several hundred years, like those in the critical text.

Third, Scripture promises that God would lead His saints into all truth, and that the Word, all of His words, are truth (Jn 16:13, 17:8, 17).   True churches of Christ would receive and guard these words (Mt 28:19-20; Jn 17:8; Acts 8:14, 11:1, 17:11; 1 Thess 2:13; 1 Cor 15:3; 1 Tim 3:15). Believers called the New Testament Greek text, the textus receptus, because the churches received it and then kept it.  Churches of truly converted people with a true gospel and the indwelling Holy Spirit bore testimony to this text as perfect.  Many, many quotes evince this doctrine, including this one by John Owen from His Works:

But my present considerations being not to be extended beyond the concernment of the truth which in the foregoing discourse I have pleaded for, I shall first propose a brief abstract thereof, as to that part of it which seems to be especially concerned, and then lay down what to me appears in its prejudice in the volumes now under debate, not doubting but a fuller account of the whole will by some or other be speedily tendered unto the learned and impartial readers of them. The sum of what I am pleading for, as to the particular head to be vindicated, is, That as the Scriptures of the Old and New Testament were immediately and entirely given out by God himself, his mind being in them represented unto us without the least interveniency of such mediums and ways as were capable of giving change or alteration to the least iota or syllable; so, by his good and merciful providential dispensation, in his love to his word and church, his whole word, as first given out by him, is preserved unto us entire in the original languages; where, shining in its own beauty and lustre (as also in all translations, so far as they faithfully represent the originals), it manifests and evidences unto the consciences of men, without other foreign help or assistance, its divine original and authority.

This reflects the position of the Westminster Confession of Faith and the later London Baptist Confession.  Professor E. D. Morris for decades taught the Westminster Confession at Lane Theological Seminary in Cincinnati, Ohio. Philip Schaff consulted with him for his Creeds of Christendom. In 1893, Morris wrote for The Evangelist:

As a Professor in a Theological Seminary, it has been my duty to make a special study of the Westminster Confession of Faith, as have I done for twenty years; and I venture to affirm that no one who is qualified to give an opinion on the subject, would dare to risk his reputation on the statement that the Westminster divines ever thought the original manuscripts of the Bible were distinct from the copies in their possession.

Richard Capel represents the position well (Capel’s Remains, London, 1658, pp. 19-43):

[W]e have the Copies in both languages [Hebrew and Greek], which Copies vary not from Primitive writings in any matter which may stumble any. This concernes onely the learned, and they know that by consent of all parties, the most learned on all sides among Christians do shake hands in this, that God by his providence hath preserved them uncorrupt. . . . As God committed the Hebrew text of the Old Testament to the Jewes, and did and doth move their hearts to keep it untainted to this day: So I dare lay it on the same God, that he in his providence is so with the Church of the Gentiles, that they have and do preserve the Greek Text uncorrupt, and clear: As for some scrapes by Transcribers, that comes to no more, than to censure a book to be corrupt, because of some scrapes in the printing, and tis certain, that what mistake is in one print, is corrected in another.

Perfect preservation admitted scribal errors, but because of providential preservation, “what mistake is in one print, is corrected in another.”  Critical text advocates conflate this to textual criticism about which foremost historian Richard Muller wrote on p. 541 of the second volume of his Post Reformation Reformed Dogmatics:

All too much discussion of the Reformers’ methods has attempted to turn them into precursors of the modern critical method, when in fact, the developments of exegesis and hermeneutics in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries both precede and, frequently conflict with (as well as occasionally adumbrate) the methods of the modern era.

Muller wrote on p. 433:

By “original and authentic” text, the Protestant orthodox do not mean the autographa which no one can possess but the apographa in the original tongue which are the source of all versions. The Jews throughout history and the church in the time of Christ regarded the Hebrew of the Old Testament as authentic and for nearly six centuries after Christ, the Greek of the New Testament was viewed as authentic without dispute. It is important to note that the Reformed orthodox insistence on the identification of the Hebrew and Greek texts as alone authentic does not demand direct reference to autographa in those languages; the “original and authentic text” of Scripture means, beyond the autograph copies, the legitimate tradition of Hebrew and Greek apographa.

These biblical presuppositions are true.  For the New Testament, only the textus receptus fulfills those presuppositions.  Those words were preserved in the language in which they were written, koine Greek.  They were the only words available to the generations of believers from 1500 to 1881.  They are also the only words that believers ever agreed, received, and testified were God’s preserved Words in the language in which they were written.

To Be Continued

The Conflicting, Perplexing Calvinistic Doctrine of Free Will (Part Three)

Part One     Part Two

Part of the confidence and tone of certainty about predetermination and free will seems to come from ambiguity that conflicts and perplexes.  A Calvinist will talk to you with a look of absolute conviction.  It’s as if he’s bluffing.  He knows something you don’t know and you can’t see.  You’re looking, you want to know like he does, but you just don’t see it.

Some people talk about a kind of faith not anchored in scripture, which is mere fideism.  I’ve had that charge made against me on the doctrine of preservation.  Calvinism takes fideistic leaps in the dark.

A fairly recent article by Tom Hicks in the Foundation Journal (Fall 2016, Issue 106) he explicates Robert Shaw in his 1845 The Reformed Faith: An Exposition of the Westminster Confession of Faith (p. 81) in writing:

The doctrine that God eternally and unconditionally decreed all future things necessarily follows from the fact that God is independent, all knowing, and unchangeable, which is what chapter 2 of the confession (WCF) teaches. Since God is independent, it follows that His decree cannot depend upon anything in the future or anything outside of Himself. Since God knows all things, it follows that God must have first decreed all things. And since God is unchangeable, it follows that God must have an unchangeable decree at the foundation of all that He does.

They say that God decrees all future things.  So what do you want to know?  Does God decree sin?  Does man choose to sin?  These are good questions, the answers of which seem contradictory.  It is at the very root of Calvinism.  You take away these foundational doctrines and you’ve got a different system. What matters, wouldn’t we ask, is what does the Bible say?  The right position takes into consideration all of scripture according to the plain meaning of the text.

Listening to the late Calvinist R. C. Sproul explain the Arminian view of free will, he said Arminians came to their position to save or rescue God from a reputation of unloving and harsh, an uncaring manipulator.  He didn’t provide any basis for this contention.  It is a typical kind of argument that I hear in discussions.

What if Calvinism was a pendulum swing from Roman Catholicism, the latter teaching man can work his way?  Could Calvinism have swung too far toward an unscriptural view of free will to ensure a position of salvation by grace with all for the glory of God?

In another clip by Sproul, he compares someone who believes in free will to an atheist.  He explains that this is because if God is not sovereign, then God is not God.  There is an informal logical fallacy here, called equivocation, because it’s a matter of a definition of the term, sovereignty.  Is sovereignty the understanding of the Westminster Confession of Faith (WCF), chapter three, paragraph one?

God, from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass: yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.

Ephesians 1:11 and Free Will

The London Baptist Confession says almost identical words.  The authors said “God . . . ordain(s) whatsoever comes to pass.”  This echoes an interpretation of Ephesians 1:11 to which I’ve referred already in this series:

In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will.

“Ordain whatsoever comes to pass” seems to match “worketh all things after the counsel of his own will.”  Do those mean the same thing?  I don’t think so.  “Worketh” in Ephesians 1:11 is energeo.  BDAG takes into consideration all its usage and says it means:  “to bring something about through use of capability.”  Does that compare to “ordain”?  The Universal World Dictionary in 1706 says ordain means “to command or enjoin, to appoint or design.”

When I look at the meaning of words, I’m considering the history of the doctrine.  What were they saying, when they said “ordain” in the WCF and LBC?  I’m looking at old dictionaries around the same time to have a better sense of what they meant.  However, a modern dictionary says that “ordain” in the religious sense means “to destine or predestine, to order or command” in the context that its being used.

Working all things according to the counsel of his will in Ephesians 1:11 is very similar to working all things together for good in Romans 8:28.  God is not working all things period.  He is working in a way or manner that all things fulfill God’s purpose, which is the understanding of “counsel.”  Working in that sense is not the same as ordaining all things.  What I’m describing fits much better with the rest of scripture also.

A. A. Hodge was the principal of Princeton Seminary from 1878 to 1886 and wrote A Commentary on the Westminster Confession.  He amazes the convoluted ends he goes to reason that God controls or determines every single event that occurs in the entire universe at every moment.  He writes:

The plan of God comprehends and determines all things and events of every kind that come to pass.  (1) This is rendered certain from the fact that all God’s works of creation and providence constitute one system. No event is isolated, either in the physical or moral world, either in heaven or on earth. All of God’s supernatural revelations and every advance of human science conspire to make this truth conspicuously luminous. Hence the original intention which determines one event must also determine every other event related to it, as cause, condition, or consequent, direct and indirect, immediate and remote. Hence, the plan which determines general ends must also determine even the minutest element comprehended in the system of which those ends are parts. The free actions of free agents constitute an eminently important and effective element in the system of things. If the plan of God did not determine events of this class, he could make nothing certain, and his government of the world would be made contingent and dependent, and all his purposes fallible and mutable.

With the extent that Hodge goes with his explanation of God determining “all things and events of every kind that come to pass” and the comprehensiveness of it, he still writes:

It must be remembered, however, that the purpose of God with respect to the sinful acts of men and wicked angels is in no degree to cause the evil, nor to approve it, but only to permit the wicked agent to perform it, and then to overrule it for his own most wise and holy ends.

Herein lies a contradiction.  God does not contradict Himself.  Either they are both true or they are both false.  I understand that God does not ordain anyone to sin.  I fully comprehend Hodge’s unwillingness to say that God determines evil.  The WCF and LBC say the same.  However, the comprehensive determinism of the first general statement clashes with the following statements.

James 1:13 and Free Will

James (1:13) writes:

Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man.

Why would someone say God tempted him to sin?  From where would that thought or conception arise?  If the sovereignty of God is deterministic, then someone could blame God for his sin.  God determines things, yes, but not all things.  That should be in the general statement.

James 1:13 sounds like, man has choices.  Man cannot blame God for sin because man chooses to sin.  God determines His will, His purpose, but not everything, but it’s also His will that man has a choice, a free will.

Thomas Boston (1676-1732) wrote a commentary on the Shorter Catechism, which is a shorter catechism of the Westminster Confession.  He writes:

I am to explain the nature of a decree. The text calls it a purpose, a will. For God to decree is to purpose and fore-ordain, to will and appoint that a thing shall be or not be. And such decrees must needs be granted, seeing God is absolutely perfect, and therefore nothing can come to pass without his will; seeing there is an absolute and necessary dependence of all things and persons on God as the first cause. . . . He worketh all things, says the text. God has decreed whatsoever comes to pass; and nothing comes to pass but what he has decreed to come to pass.

Later in the same commentary, however, Boston writes:

God decreed the permission of sin for great and glorious ends. It is true, sin in its own nature has no tendency to any good end.  If it end in any good, it is from the overruling providence of God, and that infinite divine skill that can bring good out of evil, as well as light out of darkness. . . . God decrees the permission of sin, as above explained, yet is not the author of sin.

The decree of God seems to allow for permission even in its definition.  If God permits anything and does not determine everything, what is the basis for that exception in the decree?   Again Calvinism conflicts and perplexes.  Nothing comes to pass but what God has decreed to come to pass, but regarding sin, God merely permits it, not determines it.

Back to Genesis 50:20 and Free Will

Conflict and perplexity revolves around the compatibility of comprehensive or total determinism and permission only to do evil.  If God decrees or ordains all things, which means predetermine all of them, why did God not also ordain the thoughts or intentions of Joseph’s brothers in Genesis 50:20?

But as for you, ye thought evil against me; but God meant it unto good, to bring to pass, as it is this day, to save much people alive.

Either God used their evil thoughts against Joseph or He ordained them.  If He didn’t ordain them, only permitted them, and then used them, God doesn’t determine all things.  If God doesn’t determine all things, then why believe that He determines or ordains who goes to Hell or who goes to Heaven?

God is sovereign.  He determines what He wills.  In His sovereignty, however, scripture reads that God willed or wanted free will for man.  Genesis 50:20 offers a good example of this, since Joseph’s brothers chose their evil thinking or intentions, but there are many others.

(To Be Continued)

AUTHORS OF THE BLOG

  • Kent Brandenburg
  • Thomas Ross

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