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God’s Perfect Preservation of the Old Testament Hebrew Text and the King James Version (Part Two)

Part One

Most talk about the text of the Bible focuses on the New Testament.  The Old Testament is much larger and yet there is less variation in extant copies of the Old Testament than the New.  As well, more Christian scholars know the Greek than the Hebrew, and when they know the Hebrew, they also know the Greek better.

Scripture teaches the preservation of all of scripture in the original languages, the languages in which scripture was written.  Even if the conversation mainly centers on the New Testament, God preserved the Old Testament perfectly too.  In recent days, some are talking more about the Old Testament again.  Our book, Thou Shalt Keep Them, addressed the preservation of the Old Testament and the variation of a Hebrew critical text.

No Translation Above Preserved Hebrew Text

I think you would be right to detect hypocrisy in many of those who wish to alter the preserved Hebrew text of the Old Testament with a Greek, Latin, or Syriac translation.  Not necessarily in this order, but, first, it flies in the face of “manuscript evidence.”  It’s not because there isn’t evidence — around three hundred extant ancient handwritten copies of the Hebrew Masoretic text exist.  Second, critical text advocates savagely attack those who identify preservation in a translation.  I don’t believe God preserved His words in a translation, but they actually do in their underlying Old Testament text for the modern versions.

In a related issue, the same critical text supporters most often say that Jesus quoted from a Greek translation of the Old Testament, “the Septuagint.”  As someone reads the references or mentions of the Old Testament by Jesus in the Gospels, he will notice that there are not exact quotations of the Hebrew Masoretic text.  Even when you compare the English translation of the Hebrew in the Old Testament passage and compare it with the English translation of the Greek in the New Testament, they won’t match exactly most of the time.  What was happening in these passages?  Is this evidence that we don’t have an identical text to them?

View of the Septuagint

It is a popular and false notion that Christians in the first century used a Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, called the Septuagint, as their scriptures, so they quoted from it.  All the New Testament “quotations” of the Old Testament have at least minor variants from the various editions of the Septuagint in all but one place:  a quote in Matthew 21:16 is identical to a part of Psalm 8:3 in Ralf’s edition of the Septuagint.

When you read the New Testament and find the 320 or so usages or allusions to the Old Testament in it, you will see that they are not identical.  Some might explain that as a translation of a translation, that is, the Old Testament, Hebrew to English, and the New Testament, Hebrew to Greek to English, differences will occur by a sheer dissipation of a third language.  Online and in other locations you can compare an English translation of the New Testament quotations of the Old Testament with an English translation of one edition of the Septuagint and one of the Hebrew Masoretic to compare the latter two with the first.

I see value in the Septuagint, whichever edition, since there are several.  Those various editions give larger sample sizes of Greek usage for meaning and syntax for understanding the Greek biblical language of the New Testament.  They can help with the study of both the Old and New Testaments.  As an example, Jewish translators translated the Old Testament Hebrew word almah in Isaiah 7:14 parthenos, which is the specific Greek word for “virgin,” not “young woman.”  All of this answers the question, “How would people have understood the word, phrase, or sentence who heard it in that day?”

What Did New Testament Authors Do?

The mentions of the Old Testament in the New are most often not verbatim quotations of the Hebrew.  That’s not what the New Testament authors were doing.  They were serious about the preservation of the Old Testament as seen in the regular use of the words, “it is written.”  This is a perfect passive verb that says passage continues written.  The writing of the passage was complete with the results of that writing ongoing.  This communicates the preservation of scripture.

The New Testament authors knew the Old Testament well, so they didn’t need a Greek translation of it.  The New Testament writers could do their own translation of a Hebrew text.  They most often, however, did a “targum,”  some quoting and some paraphrasing from memory and also deliberately using the words of the text to make their theological or practical point from the Bible.  Preachers continue to do this today, sometimes quoting directly from a translation and other times making an allusion or reference to the passage.

Reliance on the Septuagint?

What I’m explaining about “targumming” is the explanation of John Owen and others through history as to the variation between the Old Testament Hebrew and the Greek or English translation.  Some references to the Old Testament are closer to an edition of the Septuagint than the Hebrew Masoretic text, sometimes almost identical.  Were the scriptural authors relying on a Septuagint, which predated the New Testament?

If New Testament authors relied on what we know of the Greek Septuagint today, then they depended on a corrupt edition or version of scripture.  Some give this as an argument for the validation of a corrupt text.  They say that God doesn’t care about the very words of the Bible, just its message.  Instead, God kept the message very intact, but not the exact words.  In addition, they often say that the Septuagint is evidence for the acceptance of something short of a perfect text.   These approaches to the Septuagint are mere theories founded on faulty presuppositions.

John Owen also referred to this similarity between the usages of the New Testament authors with a translation of the Greek Old Testament, such as the Septuagint.  He said that the likely explanation was that Christians adapted the text of the Septuagint to the New Testament quotations out of respect of Jesus and the New Testament authors.  Others have echoed that down through history.  Owen wasn’t alone. It is a possibility.

John Owen

In Owen’s first volume in his three thousand page Hebrews commentary, he spends a few pages speaking on the Septuagint and the concept of quotations from it.  Owen writes (pp. 67-68):

Concerning these, and some other places, many confidently affirm, that the apostle waved the original, and reported the words from the translation of the LXX. . . . [T]his boldness in correcting the text, and fancying without proof, testimony, or probability, of other ancient copies of the Scripture of the Old Testament, differing in many things from them which alone remain, and which indeed were ever in the world, may quickly prove pernicious to the church of God. . . .

[I]t is highly probable, that the apostle, according to his wonted manner, which appears in almost all the citations used by him in this epistle, reporting the sense and import of the places, in words of his own, the Christian transcribers of the Greek Bible inserted his expressions into the text, either as judging them a more proper version of the original, (whereof they were ignorant) than that of the LXX., or out of a preposterous zeal to take away the appearance of a diversity between the text and the apostle’s citation of it.

And thus in those testimonies where there is a real variation from the Hebrew original, the apostle took not his words from the translation of the LXX. but his words were afterwards inserted into that translation.

Theories of Men Versus the Promises of God

Theories of men should not upend or variate the promises of God.  God’s promises stand.  He promised to preserve the original language text.  We should believe it.  No one should believe that Jesus or one of the apostles quoted from a corrupted Greek translation.  That contradicts the biblical doctrine of the preservation of scripture.  Other answers exist.

Whatever position someone takes on the Septuagint, it should not contradict what God already said He would do.  There is no authority to historical theories based on no or tenuous evidence at best.  The best explanation is one that continues a high view of scripture.  One should not rely on one of the editions of the Greek Septuagint for deciding what scripture is.  It should not correct the received Hebrew text of the Old Testament.  Instead, everyone should believe what God said He would do and acknowledge its fulfillment in history.

The Textual Pope Theory of Mark Ward

Hypothetical Manuscript Finds

In his last video, Mark Ward again clarifies his viewpoint of a doctrine of preservation of scripture.  He makes up this position out of sheer cloth.   As a case study, he imagines an ancient New Testament manuscript discovered at Pompeii that helps swing textual critics’ opinion toward one word in one verse over another.  It’s the reality, he says, of willingness to still alter any verse in the New Testament based upon a further archaeological find.

Ward illuminates an important aspect of his view of preservation:  every verse of the biblical text is yet to be settled.  Any word could still change in the worldview of Mark Ward and others.  They reject the biblical and historical doctrine of preservation.

The Argument

How does Ward argue for his position?  He doesn’t rely on scripture at all.  Ward claims a doctrine of preservation (which he explained in a recent video) and then rests on his experience and circumstances to formulate it.   Then when he goes to explain our position, he twists it on purpose.   He perverts and misrepresents it.  I’m sure this is why he won’t discuss it with any legitimate critics, because it would expose him for his total strawman.

It’s very easy for Mark Ward to sit and eviscerate the biblical and historical position on preservation, when he sits unchallenged.  He can much easier caricature it.  He takes an utterly moron representation of what we teach, hopeful his adherents will succumb to the deceit. The resulting opposition to his ungodly practice, he labels unchristian and feigns persecution for righteousness.  Whatever suffering he experiences is in fact for his own unrighteousness.

Ward speaks into his own bubble of misinformation.  It bounces around that echo chamber, returning back to him as true.  He can’t allow legitimate challenges because the other guys are too mean, unlike him.  He’s fuzzy kind while his constant targets are harsh and injurious in their tone.  Ward poses as a teddy bear and they a hard tonka truck making his cute bear into road kill.

“The Text” According to Ward

According to Ward, what is causing changes to the text?  Ward says, “the text,” those words.  He says, something causes changes to “the text.”  What text?  “The text.”  Is there a “the text” in the universe of Mark Ward.  He calls it “the text,” but what is it?  He says that the Editio Critico Major, the coherence based genealogical method, the CBGM, causes changes to “the text.”

In the view of Ward on the text of scripture, only a Pope figure could possess the real authority to intervene and stop changes to “the text.”  I couldn’t tell what “the text” was, but only a Pope could impede it from continuing to change.  On the other hand, besides this fictional Pope person, science is totally free to change “the text,” that is, except for Ward’s one chosen exception:  conjectural emendation.  He won’t accept CBGM to cause changes to “the text” based on conjectural emendation.  He won’t allow for sheer guessing the words, a bridge too far for him, but that’s it.

A Mysterious Pope-Like Figure

Ward mockingly says the following verbatim, which mirrors what he said in the video I last reviewed:

The only real alternative is for some pope-like figure to come to us with Christ’s authority and tell us to stop.  A great fiery angel might come and tell Dirk Jongkind:  “Your work is at an end.  The current edition of the Tyndale House Greek New Testament now perfectly matches the originals — or is close enough.”  Then we’d be done.  No verses would be permitted to change for any reason at that point.

These statements do not represent what God says He would do with His Words according to scripture.  Canonicity did not occur from a pope-like figure uttering the names of the sixty-six books in a state of trance, the channel of God’s revelation.  That’s not the story.  Ward should get the position right, but he continues to make these kind of representations that straw man the biblical and historical position.  He won’t engage anyone in public who can state the actual position.

Ward then continues:

The real difference between me and some of the smartest defenders of the Textus Receptus is that they’ve limited the changes by deciding by fiat, that without God’s authority only printed editions of the Textus Receptus are allowed to be considered.  I just have a bigger pool of Greek New Testament readings to draw from than they do, because I want to be aware of all the readings God has preserved for us.

Changes by Fiat?

Ward above flat out again annihilates the biblical and historical position on preservation.  What God preserved would be available to every generation of believer.  New finds are rejected, because they do not fit that presupposition.  Ward will continue accepting new discoveries ad infinitum, because he both doesn’t believe in the perfection of the preservation of the text, nor in a settled text.  It’s an ongoing and never ending process for him and others.  That is not preservation.

The received manuscripts of the church were printed into editions of the Textus Receptus.  This is the settlement or canonicity of the text.  The church accepted this.  Upon the end of that period in the 16th and early 17th century, they ended their continued updating.  The words were available in those printed editions, one facet of the doctrine of preservation.

Inward Testimony of the Holy Spirit and Agreement of Churches

Like the church settled on the Books, evidence of the inward testimony of the Holy Spirit, confirming the Books, the church did the same with the text of scripture.  This reflected a belief in preservation.  It was not a never ending process.  It was over and settled, not dependent on naturalism, but on the providence of God and the witness of the Spirit.

Believers did not look for a Pope figure.  Ward purposefully spins the biblical and historical position into this transmogrification.  Only one Holy Spirit works through all the true believers.  Their agreement, they saw as the testimony of the Spirit.  They also trusted that God would do what He said He would do.  The model is there in the canonicity of the Books.

You will never hear Mark Ward represent the biblical and historical position as written by myself and others.  Never.  He does not represent it properly.  I and others have not only written this position, but we have documented from church history, a multiplicity of statements from the historic doctrine of preservation.  Churches embracing scripture as final authority believed and wrote this doctrine.  This is why the Textus Receptus reigned as the text for the church for centuries.

Ward intimates in a very ambiguous way that supporters of the Textus Receptus should respect the testimony of contemporary believers in the same way they do for those in the past.  I hear that from him and consider the veracity of it.  Is this a matter of church vote or churches voting?  The church already received what the text was.  If the vote changes, a greater number support a critical apparatus rather than a settled text, should people consider the updated text as the actual text, the original one?

Problems with a Theory

There are a lot of problems with Ward’s theory concerning the most recent acceptance of professing believers.  First, it doesn’t fit biblical presuppositions.  It rejects availability and a perfect and settled text.  The Holy Spirit won’t suddenly change His testimony.  His witness is true.  The change would mean it wasn’t.

Second, the recent professing believers, who choose something different than the received text, don’t believe in perfect preservation.  They don’t themselves embrace the underlying text in the same manner as those in their historical and biblical doctrinal presentations for centuries.

Third, the embrace of a perfect text means continued tweaking and changing is over.  The presuppositions won’t change either.  An already confirmed settled text eliminates a future new or different text.

Perhaps Mark Ward finds himself toward the end of this period of his life where a primary emphasis is pushing people toward modern versions of the Bible.  His focus shifts from his intelligibility argument to a textual one, explaining what he really thinks about the doctrine of preservation of scripture.  Perfect preservation doesn’t require a Pope figure to declare ex cathedra the settled text of scripture.  God already through the inward testimony of His Spirit led His church to those Words.  I call on Ward and others to receive them by faith.

Answering Mark Ward’s Last Attack on Preservation of Scripture (part two)

Part One

Modern Textual Criticism

In a recent video, Mark Ward again attacked the biblical and historical position on the preservation of scripture.  He’ll surely have or find people who will support him.  They use modern versions and many of them don’t understand the issue.  He helps them stay in the dark on this.  Ward says that we, who he calls the advocates of his MT/TR story, cause division with true believers.  Division comes from a later, novel bibliology that contradicts the already established and believed position.  When someone changes a biblical position, the right way is showing how that the former position rests on wrong or no exegesis.  This isn’t what occurred.

What did occur was that modern textual criticism arose out of German rationalism.  Modern textual criticism in its roots traces back to German rationalism, particularly in the 18th and 19th centuries.  A shift in theological thought characterized this period, where scholars began to apply rationalistic principles to biblical texts, leading to a more critical approach to scripture.

German Rationalism

German rationalism emerged as a philosophical movement that emphasized reason and empirical evidence over biblical exposition and theology. This intellectual climate encouraged scholars to scrutinize manuscripts of scripture with the same critical lens applied to other historical documents. The movement sought to understand the Bible not merely as a sacred text but as a collection of writings subject to human authorship and historical context.

The principles of German rationalism significantly influenced early textual critics such as Johann Griesbach, who is often regarded as one of the pioneers in this field. Griesbach’s work involved analyzing biblical manuscripts using methods that reflected rationalist thinking, which included questioning historical belief about divine inspiration and preservation of scripture. His approach laid the groundwork for subsequent textual critics like B.F. Westcott and F.J.A. Hort, who further developed these ideas in their own critical editions of the New Testament.

Continued Assessment of Mark Ward’s Attack

Perfect or Accurate Translation

Ward slants the MT/TR position to attempt to make it look like a joke and it’s advocates a bunch of clowns.  Then when he does it, he doesn’t allow anyone to come and correct his statements.  He next says that MT/TR supporters believe the King James Version (KJV) translators saved the Bible from Satanic counterfeits by making a “perfect translation” of “perfect Hebrew and Greek texts.”  I’ve never called the KJV a “perfect translation.”  The only time “perfect translation” occurs in my voluminous writings is when quoting and criticizing Peter Ruckman.  Besides that, I wrote this:

God doesn’t ever promise a perfect translation. Turretin, like me, believes that preservation occurs in the original languages because that is what Scripture teaches.

This is the only usage by me for “perfect translation.”  I use the language “accurate translation,” because I believe they could have translated the same Hebrew and Greek texts differently.  Most of the other MT/TR men would say the same as I.

Perfect Hebrew and Greek Texts

Ward also gets the “perfect Hebrew and Greek texts” wrong.  Mark Ward already knows this.  He caricatures our position to try to make it look silly.  That is mainly what he is doing.  The MT/TR position expresses the doctrine of perfect preservation of scripture, but doesn’t say that all the preserved words are either in one manuscript (text) or even printed edition.   The words are instead preserved and available to every generation of believer.  God did perfectly preserve the text of scripture and providentially provided a settled text by means of the same method of canonicity, the inward testimony or witness of the Holy Spirit through the church.

True churches received God’s Words.  They agreed on them.  This is a position taken from biblical presuppositions.  Just like churches agreed on Books, they agreed upon Words.  What I’m describing is the historical and biblical way of knowing what are the Words of God.  What I just described doesn’t sound as stupid as how Mark Ward characterized this part of his fabrication of a story.

Satanic Corruption

One thing Ward gets right is “spotting” the Satanic corruptions in other Bibles.  If you have a settled text based on God’s promises, then whatever differs from it is a corruption.  Two different words can’t both be right.  The text of scripture isn’t a multiple choice question.  If we are to live by every Word, then we must possess every Word.  It’s true that I believe that Satan wants to confuse through the offering of all these different “Bibles” and presenting hundreds of variations of text as possible.  This doesn’t fit scriptural presuppositions and it affects the authority of scripture.

Story of Ruckmanism

The second story Ward tells is his story of Ruckmanism.  Many times Mark Ward has called Ruckmanism more consistent than the MT/TR position.  Maybe he believes that, but it seems possible he says it to get under the skin of MT/TR people.  Ruckmanism doesn’t operate with scriptural presuppositions unless one considers an allegorical or very subjective interpretation of passages, which read into the Bible, to be scriptural.  Ward says that Ruckmanities originated their position as a reaction to lack of manuscript support in the MT/TR.

Peter Ruckman was born in 1921.  Ruckmanism came to and from him no earlier than then 1940s.  His view of the superiority of the King James Version arose from his presupposition that it was advanced revelation from God.  No one held that belief until Ruckman.  Peter Ruckman wrote in The Christian Handbook of Biblical Scholarship:

The King James Bible was ‘given by inspiration of God.’

Ruckman invented the position and then defended it by spiritualizing or allegorizing certain passages, reading into them his viewpoint on the King James Version.  Ruckmanism did not come from his view of the inferiority of the Textus Receptus Greek New Testament as a further iteration of that.

Ruckman’s Position

Since Ruckman believed God reinspired the King James Version, he rejected all other versions.  Even if they had the same textual basis as the King James Version, he would repudiate them.  To him, the English words were equal to the original manuscripts of scripture.  That view did not proceed from disagreement about underlying textual differences.  Ruckman denied the preservation of scripture through original language manuscripts and editions.

Several times, Ward says the Ruckman story is the inspiration of the translator “to recover the right reading.”  That’s false.  Ruckman did not believe, as Ward says in his Ruckman story, that the textual choices and translation choices of the King James Version were perfect.  To Ruckman and his followers, God didn’t inspire the right reading.  No, God inspired the English itself.  It wasn’t that Ruckman didn’t like the textual choices of Erasmus or that he relied on the Latin Vulgate.  Based on his presuppositions, he took a novel double inspiration position.

Support of the Majority of Manuscripts

Unlike the critical text, which has support of either a small minority of manuscripts or none at all, the majority of the Greek New Testament manuscripts support almost the entirety of the Textus Receptus.  Only in very few places does the Textus Receptus have support of few extant Greek manuscripts, even though there is large extant Latin evidence in those few places.  In one place, one word has no extant manuscript evidence.  However, that does not mean no manuscript support.  TR editions are printed copies from sometimes a non extant manuscript.  It is preservation of scripture.

Not all the manuscripts relied upon by Theodore Beza survived the religious wars in Europe.  In one place where critical text advocates say he did conjectural emendation, he writes in Latin that he had the support of one Greek manuscript too.  I believe in preservation in the original languages.  However, people like Mark Ward are hypocritical in this, because they themselves support the best texts in many places rely on a translation.  His and their Septuagint view says that Jesus Himself quoted from the Septuagint.

More to Come

AI Friday: Who Won the Thomas Ross/James White KJV Debate?

Again, I asked AI the question of the title of today’s post, and here was it’s answer.

The debate between Thomas Ross and James White regarding the superiority of the King James Version (KJV) versus the Legacy Standard Bible (LSB) was marked by a clear division in perspectives on textual criticism and translation philosophy.

Debate Overview

Participants and Positions:

James White affirmed that the LSB, based on modern textual criticism and the Nestle-Aland Greek text, is superior to the KJV, which relies on the Textus Receptus.

Thomas Ross denied this claim, arguing for the KJV’s superiority based on its textual basis and historical usage within Protestant traditions.

Key Arguments:

James White argued that modern translations like the LSB are more accurate due to advances in textual criticism and manuscript discoveries.

Thomas Ross countered by emphasizing the preservation of Scripture as understood by KJV advocates, asserting that the KJV translators intended their work to be seen as superior to all previous translations.

Critical Points Raised:

Ross highlighted that White failed to provide substantial evidence from primary sources regarding what KJV translators would support today.

He also pointed out that many of White’s claims about modern translations undermining key doctrines were not substantiated with adequate historical context or documentation.

Conclusion Drawn from Reviews:

Post-debate analyses from various observers suggest that while both sides presented compelling arguments, Ross’s emphasis on historical fidelity and doctrinal integrity resonated strongly with those who hold traditional views of Scripture preservation.

Overall Assessment:

The debate did not yield a definitive “winner” in a traditional sense; however, many proponents of KJV-only perspectives believe that Thomas Ross effectively defended his position against James White’s assertions.

In summary, while both debaters presented their cases passionately, many observers lean towards viewing Thomas Ross as having won the debate, particularly among those who advocate for KJV-only positions.

***********************

I asked AI why Thomas Ross won the debate with James White and it concluded:

In summary, Thomas Ross won the debate against James White due to his strong argumentation on textual preservation, effective use of Scripture, engaging presentation style, ability to address counterarguments effectively, appeal to historical context, and connection with the audience’s values regarding traditional biblical texts.

How Can There Be Any Sin in Sincere? Mark Ward Strikes Again

Mark Ward made a video about me, and then SharperIron linked to it with my name.  Is this a case of my living rent free in Mark’s head?  I don’t know.  I’m fine with his letting it go.  He can’t do it though.  Maybe I’m bringing him more audience.  His numbers go up when he uses me in his presentations.  They go way up.  The terminology is “clickbait.”

In this edition of the Mark Ward show, he says that I helped prove his point about his “false friends” in the King James Version.  He titles the episode:  “Let a Leading KJV-Onlyist Teach You a False Friend!”  Oh so clever, Mark Ward, the Snidley Whiplash of Multiple Version Onlyists.  Yet, “Curses, foiled again!”  Foiled again, because Dudley Do-Right of TR Onlyism is of course not in fact jumping on the Snidley false friend train track.  What happened?

1 Peter 2:2

For many years, I have used and still use 1 Peter 2:2 as a major Christian worldview reference and helping understand the word “sincere.”  Mark says “sincere” now is a bad translation in 1 Peter 2:2 and a “false friend.”  I ask, “How can there be any sin in sincere?”  Answer:  By stretching the truth.

Mark dug deep into this blog to find a post and an exchange in the comment section as the highlight of his program.  Here is 1 Peter 2:2:

As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby.

I’ve referred to “the sincere milk” many times as the “pure mother’s milk” (here, here, here, here, and here among other places).  Ward says “sincere” is a false friend to a reader of the King James Version, because sincere means something different today than it did in 1611 (or 1769).  Instead, he says (and says that I say) it means “pure.”  He reports that I think it should mean pure too, but because I’m KJVO, I won’t admit that, even though I believe it.  He’s saying I’m not sincere about sincere.

Sincere Milk

Welcome to the Snidley Whiplash mindreading class, SW101.  I said that “sincere milk” is not common language for today.  It isn’t.  Almost nobody would know what that means without explanation.  Perhaps people knew better in 1611.  Still, I don’t think another translation today would be better than “sincere” in 1 Peter 2:2.  “Pure milk” doesn’t get it done.  It misses the point of that expression in the original language.  I talk about the meaning in the comment section of the post to which Ward referred:

The mother’s milk goes to her baby without any other intervention, no human intervention, straight from mom to baby, unlike other milk. God changes us through revelation, not through our discoveries. With God and His Word there is no variableness or shadow of turning. His Word and God are not relative as is everything else. It comes direct and so undiluted or affected unlike our eyewitness or findings. We can’t trust these lying eyes or that there hasn’t been some kind of intervention in nature. This is why faith is superior to human discovery, because it depends on God.

The sincerity, the purity, is that it comes as one, which is the meaning of the Latin “sin,” one. There is oneness to the nature of God and to His revelation. It is entirely cohesive, non-contradictory, not mixed with any kind of error.

Mark Ward doesn’t include this part in his presentation.  Why do I think “sincere” is still a good translation that needs no update in 1 Peter 2:2?

Pure or Sincere?

Play On Words

The Greek word translated “sincere” is adolos.  The “a” portion of the Greek word means “no.”  It’s called an alpha privative, expressing negation or absence.  The previous verse, 1 Peter 2:1, uses dolos, the King James translators translated it guile.  Guile could also mean deception.  I believe there is a purposeful play on words by Peter between dolos and adolos, emphasizing the contrast between the speakings of men and the speakings of God.  The speakings of men have dolos and the speakings of God have adolos.

Does adolos strictly mean “pure”?  No.  Sincerity conveys that someone speaks without deception, the error that enters into the speech or writing for a man-engendered reason.  “Pure” doesn’t communicate that.  In this sense, when the modern translators translate adolos as “pure,” that’s a false friend to those who read the word.

Meaning of Pure

In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus says in Matthew 5:8:

Blessed are the pure in heart: for they shall see God.

Is “pure” here adolos?  Is it without guile or not deceptive?  No.  This is the Greek word katharoi.  An English word that comes from this is “katharsis.”  This is what people think when they hear “pure” today.   Yet, that’s not what Peter is saying in 1 Peter 2:2, that the Word of God is pure in that sense.

What I thought and wrote in the one post to which Mark Ward refers is that “sincere milk” is the “pure mother’s milk.”  That is different than saying it is “pure milk.”  He says that I wrote that “sincere” means “pure.”  I wasn’t saying that and I didn’t say that, which is why I believe Mark Ward left off the latter context of what I wrote and really focused on my reference to the Oxford English Dictionary.  He isn’t sincere about my position ironically.  That adulterates his commentary on what I wrote.

Christian Worldview

From a Christian worldview standpoint, God’s Word is revelation so it goes from God directly to the hearer like a breast-fed baby gets his milk directly from his mother.  There is no intermediary.  Evidence on the other hand involves, one, someone’s lying or deceived eyes, and, two, a context that is not neutral.  I like to the say that the crime scene is contaminated.

When human beings look at evidence, they don’t see it clearly.  God’s Word or will, therefore, can’t come through human discovery, but through the direct undiluted revelation of God.  Revelation by nature is non-discoverable or else it wouldn’t be revelation.  Revelation is “sincere milk.”

“Sincere” is still the best translation, but we also still have to explain it.  If we translated adolos “pure,” that would more likely, I believe, lead someone astray on the meaning of the word, a false friend to the one reading it.  I really do think this and Snidley Whiplash, someone who rejects the perfect preservation of scripture, misrepresents me on this.  He’s a false friend to me.

Me a King James Onlyist?

I want to say one more thing about what Mark Ward does.  He also deceives his audience by calling me a leading King James Onlyist.  Calling someone King James Only, he knows is a pejorative.  Mark Ward knows that double inspirationists (Ruckmanites) and English preservationists don’t see me as a leading King James Onlyist.  Why?  Based on the most fair understanding of that label, I’m not.  Why not?

One,

I  believe that translations should come from the original language texts, the Hebrew and Greek, not from the English.  That means that I vouch for translations that are not the King James Version.  Hence, I’m not King James Only.  True King James Onlyists won’t do that and don’t believe that.

Two,

I do not reject an update of the King James Version.  The only ones who do not know that are those who read misrepresentations from people like Mark Ward.  I believe preservation is found in the original language text from which an update would come and did come in 1769 already.  We do not use the 1611 today.  An update already occurred.  How could I be against that?

Three,

I don’t think an update of the King James Version is wrong, so I also think some words in the King James Version are archaic or out-of-use.  I’ve said this again and again.  It doesn’t mean I support an update.  I have other reasons why I want to keep the King James Version.  The main one is its underlying textual differences between the King James and modern versions, something Mark Ward says he won’t debate.

Four,

I say all the time that I think someone could make a different translation of certain words in the King James Version.  Someone could translate the Hebrew and Greek words in a different way and they’d be right.  The translation of the King James isn’t the only way or ways to translate the original language text.  I know I would make different choices than the King James translators, but that doesn’t mean I think they’re wrong either.

A False Friend

When I study the Bible, I study the original languages.  False friends don’t occur to me, because I’m studying the words in their original languages.  I also know because of studying the original languages that translated words very often are false friends.  Mark Ward exaggerates the importance of these words.  He treats himself like he’s come upon something highly significant.  He hasn’t.  I don’t think his point about false friends means nothing, but there are greater concerns by far than these.

Mark Ward is a false friend about the King James Version.  He poses like he really wants to help those who use it.  I don’t see it.  By far, he’s a greater danger because of the doubt he casts upon the BIble that people use.  He relishes those who start using a contemporary translation that varies from the underlying text of the King James Version vastly more than the total number of false friends he reports.

Acts 5:30 & James White: King James Version Only Debate

As many blog readers know, I had the privilege of debating James White-who utilized Acts 5:30 as a key part of his argument–on the topic:

The Legacy Standard Bible, as a representative of modern English translations based upon the UBS/NA text, is superior to the KJV, as a representative of TR-based Bible translations.

You can watch the debate here at What is Truth? at Faithsaves.net, on YouTube, or on Rumble.  A number of Christians posted debate reviews, some of which are discussed in a What is Truth? post here. I also produced a series of debate review videos accessible on my website, on YouTube, and on Rumble.  It had been a while since I had made a new one, but I (finally) got around to getting out my thoughts on James White’s argument from this verse:

Acts 5:30 James White King James Version Bible debate KJVO King James Only

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. (Acts 5:30, KJV)

The God of our fathers braised up Jesus, whom you put to death by hanging Him on a tree. (LSB)

James White’s Argument on Acts 5:30

White argued:

1.) The King James Version in Acts 5:30 teaches that the ungodly first slew Christ, and after He was slain, they hanged Him on a tree or cross.  This would destroy the gospel by denying that the Lord Jesus died on the cross for our sins; rather, the KJV (supposedly) teaches the heresy that Christ was first killed and then His dead body was hanged on a tree or cross.

2.) The LSB is a superior translation to the KJV because in Acts 5:30 it states that His enemies killed Christ “by hanging Him on a tree,” that is, by crucifying Him.

3.) The Greek of Acts 5:30 contains the participle kremasantes, which must indicate means and be translated as affirming that Christ was slain “by hanging.”  It cannot be translated “and hanged.”

4.) The KJV translators simply “missed” that kremasantes was a participle, and not realizing that kremasantes was a participle, they translated it like a finite verb.

5.) “Every English translation” translates kremasantes as a participle of means (that is, “by hanging”). The KJV “is the only one” that translates the Greek as “and hanged.”

6.) There is no Greek word “and” in Acts 5:30.  The KJV therefore mistranslates the verse by adding words not found in the Greek text.

7.) Because the KJV (allegedly) teaches the heresy that Christ was killed before He was crucified in Acts 5:30, because the translators were sloppy and missed that the verse had a participle and so disagreed with every other English translation, and because the KJV adds in the word “and” that is not contained in the text, the KJV is an inferior translation in Acts 5:30, and, so, presumably is an inferior translation overall. The LSB (and every other English translation, all of which unite to oppose the KJV in Acts 5:30) are superior, not just in Acts 5:30, but in the entire Bible.

James White has been making his claims against the King James Version’s translation of Acts 5:30 for around 30 years in the several editions of his The King James Only Controversy: Can You Trust Modern Translations? (Minneapolis, MN: Bethany House, 2009), and he made them again the debate.

The Truth on Acts 5:30 and James White’s Argument

In my review video, I demonstrate:

1.) James White’ argument from Acts 5:30 does not get him even close to proving the proposition in the debate.

2.) Dr. White’s criticisms of the King James Version in Acts 5:30 are astonishingly uninformed and inaccurate.

3.) White’s claim that the KJV translators simply “missed” that Acts 5:30 contained a participle is painfully unserious.

4.) White claimed that the KJV contains a mistranslation because it supplies the word “and” before “hanged,” when the syntactical category of the attendant circumstance participle (found in Acts 5:30) requires the insertion of an “and.”

5.) To attack the KJV in Acts 5:30, White’s King James Only Controversy invents a fictional Greek grammatical category called “instrumental circumstantial modal” and makes claims about the Greek grammar of Dana and Mantey that have no connection to the actual text of their book.

6.) Failing to account for the Old Testament allusion to Deuteronomy 21:22 in Acts 5:30  is another of many examples of what is lost on account of White’s writing the King James Only Controversy in only a few months and never improving it.

7.) The favorite manuscripts of the Textus Rejectus teach the heresy that the Lord Jesus was murdered by a spear thrust before His crucifixion in Matthew 27:49.  To be consistent with White’s line of reasoning, we must recognize the unambiguous superiority of the Textus Receptus because of the egregious error in the Textus Rejectus in Matthew 27:49.

Why?  Watch the embedded video below, or watch the debate review video on Acts 5:30 (#15) at faithsaves.net, on Rumble, or on YouTube.

TDR

John 5:4 KJV/TR: Inspired Scripture or Inserted Invention?

John 5:4 appears in the Greek Textus Receptus, the English King James Version or Authorized Version (KJV / KJB / AV), and in other Received Text – based Bibles.  However, it is omitted in many modern Bible versions.  The verse reads:

John 5:4 For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

ἄγγελος γὰρ κατὰ καιρὸν κατέβαινεν ἐν τῇ κολυμβήθρᾳ, καὶ ἐτάρασσε τὸ ὕδωρ· ὁ οὖν πρῶτος ἐμβὰς μετὰ τὴν ταραχὴν τοῦ ὕδατος, ὑγιὴς ἐγίνετο, ᾧ δήποτε κατείχετο νοσήματι.

The variant actually concerns John 5:3b-5:4.  The section in bold is what is omitted:

3 In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water. 4 For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

3 ἐν ταύταις κατέκειτο πλῆθος πολὺ τῶν ἀσθενούντων, τυφλῶν, χωλῶν, ξηρῶν, ἐκδεχομένων τὴν τοῦ ὕδατος κίνησιν. 4 ἄγγελος γὰρ κατὰ καιρὸν κατέβαινεν ἐν τῇ κολυμβήθρᾳ, καὶ ἐτάρασσε τὸ ὕδωρ· ὁ οὖν πρῶτος ἐμβὰς μετὰ τὴν ταραχὴν τοῦ ὕδατος, ὑγιὴς ἐγίνετο, ᾧ δήποτε κατείχετο νοσήματι.

Should we receive John 5:4 (or rather, John 5:3b-5:4) as part of God’s holy Word?  Yes, we should.  Why?

1.) In God’s singular care and providence it has been included in the Textus Receptus, and received by the churches. Scripture promises maximal certainty about its own text.

2.) John 5:4 has great support in Greek manuscripts.  It appears in 99.2% of all Greek manuscripts.  The United Bible Society’s Greek New Testament, which is biased against the Textus Receptus, nevertheless lists as supporting witnesses in favor of John 5:4 the following: A C3 K L Xcomm Δ Θ Ψ 063 078 f1 f13 28 565 700 882 1009 1010 1071 1195 1216 1230 1241 1242 1253 1344 1365 1546 1646 2148 Byz Lect ita,aur,b,c,e,ff2,j,r1 vgcl syrp,pal copbomss arm Diatessarona,earm,i,n Tertullian Ambrose Didymus Chrysostom Cyril.

Thus, for example, Tertullian explicitly comments on John 5:4 in his On Baptism (Tertullian, “On Baptism,” in Latin Christianity: Its Founder, Tertullian, ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, and A. Cleveland Coxe, trans. S. Thelwall, vol. 3, The Ante-Nicene Fathers [Buffalo, NY: Christian Literature Company, 1885], 671.) with no indication that anyone was questioning it.  Undoubtedly, the testimony in favor of John 5:4 is both very extensive and very ancient. Its “appearance in an overwhelming number of surviving Greek manuscripts, its diffusion into the Latin and Syriac traditions (plus even some manuscripts of the Egyptian Bohairic version), along with its citation by fathers in both East and West … serve to underscore its age[.]” (Zane C. Hodges, “The Angel at Bethesda—John 5:4: Problem Passages in the Gospel of John Part 5,” Bibliotheca Sacra 136 (1979): 29.)

3.) John 5:7 does not make sense without John 5:4:

The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me.

If John 5:3b-5:4 is omitted from the Gospel of John, John 5:7 does not make any sense.  What is the impotent man talking about?

4.) The Copper Scroll from Cave 3 at Qumran establishes that the spelling of the name as “Bethesda,” as found in the Textus Receptus and the vast majority of Greek manuscripts, is correct, while the alternative spellings that are featured in the tiny minority of MSS that omit John 5:4 (Bethsaida; Belzetha; Bethzatha) are incorrect. If the witnesses for omission are clearly wrong here, while the Textus Receptus is right, we should not be surprised if the Received Text is also right in including the passage.

5.) The theology of the passage fits with the rest of Scripture, although some have unreasonably questioned it. How can John 5:4 accurately record real events? I do not see why we should think that, in that period of time before there was a completed canon of Scripture and when the Jews, who desire a sign, were God’s nation and institution in a pre-Christian dispensation, that He could not have at unspecified intervals (John 5:4 does not say how often this happened) have miraculously healed people who came to this location through the instrumentality of angels.  If demons contribute to at least some sicknesses and disease, why should we be surprised if God’s angels are associated with health? The area was destroyed by the Romans in A. D. 70, and so this miraculous action would have ceased by that point (if not earlier with the inauguration of the church as God’s institution, or even with Christ’s actions in John 5). Such miraculous healing could have been a sign that God’s special presence remained with His nation and people, even in the times of the Gentiles. Indeed, we should see that God even designed the entire place to point forward to Christ and to the manifestation of His glory as seen in John 5, after which the miracles likely ceased to take place there. The fact that, in this age when sign miracles (semeion) do not occur (although God works powerfully [dunamis] in His providential care and in many other wonderful ways) this verse can seem odd, and (in this dispensation) we are rightly highly skeptical about miracle claims, could easily explain why someone wanted to take the passage out and why a small number of people who were fine “correcting” the Bible were able to get the verse out of less than 1% of Greek MSS.  One writer comments:

[I]t must be said that the miraculous intervention of angels in human life is so well established in the Bible, and so variegated, that only those who are uncomfortable with supernaturalism itself are likely to be genuinely troubled by the content of the verses under consideration. Indeed it may even be proposed that the reference to the angel is functional for Johannine theology. Already the Fourth Evangelist has pointed to the subservience of angels to the person of Christ by citing the Lord’s memorable words to Nathaniel, “Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man” (1:51). But here too the angelic ministration at the pool of Bethesda is markedly inferior to the ministry of God’s Son. Indeed, the seasonal and limited character of the healings the angel performed—and which were of no avail to the invalid described in this passage—are an appropriate backdrop for the instantaneous deliverance which Jesus brought to a man who had virtually lost all hope (cf. v. 7) while he lay forlornly in a place where God’s mercy seemed always to touch others, but never himself.  The concept that Messiah is greater than the angels—despite the reality of their divinely appointed activities—lies implicitly in the background of the Johannine text. That this was an important theme for early Christianity no one will doubt who has read the opening chapters of the Book of Hebrews. Its appearance here, therefore, is hardly surprising. (Zane C. Hodges, “The Angel at Bethesda—John 5:4: Problem Passages in the Gospel of John Part 5,” Bibliotheca Sacra 136 [1979]: 38–39).

It is also unfortunate that anti-Received Text presuppositions lead to the exclusion of any consideration of John 5:4 in many modern books on the doctrine of angelology.

In conclusion, John 5:4 (John 5:3b-4) is part of God’s Word, just as inspired as the rest of the text.  We should receive it with fear and trembling, reverence and love, as we do the rest of holy Scripture.

TDR

Mark Ward / Thomas Ross Videos on King James Version English

As What is Truth? readers may know, Dr. Mark Ward, Bob Jones University graduate and Logos Bible software employee, produced a series of three videos (5/2/2024; 5/9/2024; 5/16/2024–note that I am making it quite easy to find his videos if you want to do so, while he made it difficult to locate the video of mine that he was responding to, which is unfortunate) on his YouTube channel entitled “More New KJV-Only Arguments” in which he responded to my “Is the King James Version (KJV) Too Hard to Understand? James White / Thomas Ross Debate Review 11” video (also here on Rumble, or here at FaithSaves). Here is the video as an embed:


I summarized my argument in the video here at What is Truth? in a previous post. Dr. Brandenburg wrote a post about how Dr. Ward said in these videos, concerning me, “I regard him as an extremist of a particularly dangerous kind, the kind that is super intelligent.”  This comment by Dr. Ward definitely made me laugh.  But watch out–this post is written by a particularly dangerous extremist. Has Dr. Ward warned about the Roman Catholic, Seventh Day Adventist, theologically modernist, and other sorts of damnable heresy that is published by Logos Bible software for whom he works?  Maybe he has called this content that his employer publishes “dangerous” somewhere–I am not aware of it if he has.  So I suppose all of that is fine, but saying English speakers should continue to use the Bible that has served them so well for 400 years–that is very, very dangerous.  Millions of people are going to hell because of Roman Catholicism and theological modernism, but what is truly dangerous is anyone who would advise English speakers to use the Authorized, King James Version, despite a small number of archaic words it contains.

I pointed out in my video that the KJV’s English fits within the parameters of the linguistic difficulty of the original language texts of Scripture.  Thus, since the KJV’s English is not harder than the Greek of the New Testament or the Hebrew of the Old Testament, we have an exegetical basis for concluding that we do not need, at this time, to revise the English Authorized Version.  We also have an exegetical basis for determining when it would be appropriate to revise the English of the KJV–if it ever becomes significantly harder to read than the original language texts, then it is time for true churches to come together to produce a revision.

There are some serious problems in Ward’s response to my argument, although I appreciate that he actually offered a response. (James White just ignored it, so good for Dr. Ward.) I am not going to point out in this post all of the problems in his book claiming that the English of the KJV is too hard, or his serious inaccuracies in his three videos.  I will, however, share with blog readers a comment I offered to part two of his three-part series.  I have italicized my comment below and have added some explanatory words within it in bold.

Dear Dr. Ward,

Thank you for taking the time to review my “Is the King James Version (KJV) Too Hard to Understand? James White / Thomas Ross Debate Review 11” video in two videos (and apparently a third video coming).

In my comment I specified the name of the video he was critiquing so that people could actually watch it instead of just hearing his critique with a very limited ability to even find and hear first hand what he was arguing against.

Someone brought these videos to my attention and so I thought I should take a peek. I hope that both my video–which, of course, was not about anything you said in particular, but about Dr. White’s comments in our debate–and your response will contribute to Christians thinking Biblically about the issue of Bible translation, and evaluating their philosophy of Bible translation from a sola Scriptura perspective, instead of just creating whatever standard they wish. If my video and your responses lead to that happening, then something useful for God’s kingdom will certainly have been accomplished for His glory.

I really do mean that.  I am glad that he made his videos, and I hope that people who are anti-KJVO will start to approach the question of Bible translation exegetically.  Of course, if they do, they just might end up becoming perfect preservationists who use exclusively the KJV in English.

Lord willing, at some point I will create a response to your videos. You may not be surprised that I have not found your responses especially compelling, although I am looking forward to hearing what you have to say in part three.

Part three was also less than compelling. Brother Ward did not seem, in some places, to even grasp my argument accurately.  For example, in part three Dr. Ward argued that if I was right then we should just add in archaic words when we make new translations, but my point was not about making new translations, but about when it is appropriate to revise an already extant translation. The idea that one should randomly decide to add in archaic words for fun has nothing to do with my argument.  For the large majority of the time since God has given the canon of Scripture God’s people would have found more rare or hard-to-understand words in the Hebrew and Greek texts than there are in the KJV, but God never instructed His Apostles and prophets to make a revision of the Hebrew or Greek texts.

I was wondering if you would be so kind as to let me know: 1.) If, before I produced my video, you had written or set forth in any setting an exegetical basis for your position on Bible translations, other than your claim that the KJV is in a different language and so violates 1 Corinthians 14 on not speaking in foreign tongues in the church without an interpreter. I must say that I find the idea that 1 Corinthians 14 teaches that we must abandon the KJV, or at least its exclusive use in English, most unconvincing exegetically. I would like to confirm that you view my claim that we should evaluate what is appropriate for English Bible translations based on the level of difficulty of the Old Testament and New Testament Hebrew and Greek texts as a claim that is indeed “novel” or new to you, and thus as something that you never considered before writing your book Authorized?

It is not good if someone has written an entire book arguing that the KJV’s English is too hard to understand and has given a significant part of his life to turning people away from the King James Bible, and yet has never even thought about comparing it with the lingustic difficulty of the text God gave His people directly by the dictation of the Holy Spirit.

Dr. Ward’s argument that because 1 Corinthians 14 forbids utilizing the miraculous gift of tongues to speak Japanese in 1st century Corinth if there were no Japanese speakers present and no translation into the common language–Greek–or forbids miraculously speaking in the tongue of Zulu if there are no Zulu speakers present, therefore we need to reject the KJV because it is really a foreign language.  This, to be kind, is less than convincing.  To be blunt, it is ridiculous, and a painful abuse of 1 Corinthians 14.  However, that is all the Scripture Dr. Ward has for his position that the English of the KJV is too hard.  Would his argument prove too much–would it prove that the Jews in Ezra’s day should have revised the books of Moses, or that the Apostles should not have used the LXX, even when it is accurate?  Yes.  So we can be thankful that his claim from 1 Corinthians 14 is astonishingly off base.  It was fine for the Jews in Malachi’s day to just read the Hebrew Pentateuch, even though their language had changed much more than the English language has between 1611 and today.

2.) If you could please also let me know how many times you have read the Greek NT cover to cover and / or the Hebrew OT, as well as what training in the languages you have, I would appreciate that as well. It will help me to be accurate in what I say in response to you, as I am sure we both believe accuracy is very important, as our God is a God of truth.

Dr. Ward never answered this question, and I suspect the answer is “zero” for both how many times he has read through the Greek NT or the Hebrew OT.  There are not a few things that he says in his videos that make me rather strongly suspect this.  They are not things one would say were he closely acquainted with the original language texts of Scripture.

Thank you very much. Let me say that I also appreciate that you provided a significant quote from my video and appeared to want to accurately represent me. I thank you for that.

I do appreciate that, as far as I can tell, Dr. Ward did not intentionally misrepresent my argument.  Did he misrepresent it?  Yes, but I think this was a matter of inaccuracy, not intentionality.  I also need to keep in mind that his anti-KJVO side does not approach issues like this through exegesis, through looking at Scripture first to see what it says about preservation and Bible translation, so he is rather like a fish out of water here.  I am glad he is trying.  I wish he had plainly told his audience where they could find my argument so they could go ad fontes and compare what I actually said with what he argued against.

3.) I would also be interested in seeing if you have any grammatical sources for your claim that the difficulty in Luke-Acts, for example, versus the Johannine literature, is mainly because participles are placed in different locations, as well as your other grammatical claims. Some of the claims seemed quite unusual to my mind, and I would like to know if any Greek grammarians make such affirmations as you made.

He never provided any sources for his claims.  I suspect that is because there are no such sources, as people who write Greek and Hebrew grammars are likely to be quite surprised by not a few of the arguments that Dr. Ward made.  I do not think that those who have actually read Luke-Acts and the Johannine literature in the New Testament would say that the main or even the chief difficulty in harder NT Greek is knowing what adverbial participles modify.  This statement sounds to me like the claim of someone who is not very familiar with the Greek of these books.

I may be into having sources for my claims more than most people who make YouTube videos, but I did not notice any grammatical sources cited in your videos.

 

That is the problem with producing YouTube videos instead of writing things down, or instead of doing face-to-face debate.

4.) When you spoke about a test that you had given to KJVO pastors that definitively proved that they did not understand the KJV themselves, I was interested and took the test, and had some KJVO folk take it as well. I must say that they did much, much better than did the people whom you surveyed. (I myself got a 19 out of 20, and I think that the one I got wrong was a problem with the question.)

I had never heard of his test, which he mentioned in part 1 of his video, until examining his video, part 1. I decided to take his test.  One of the questions was:

Remove not the ancient landmark, which thy fathers have set.”

(Proverbs 22:28 KJV)

What does it mean to “remove” a landmark? 1 point
a.) To change position; to move a short distance or in a certain direction
b.) I don’t know
c.) To progress in a direction
d.) Take (something) away or off from the position occupied

This is a poorly designed question, because more than one of the answers fits both the meaning of the Hebrew word and the English translation in the KJV. Commenting on why the word “remove” here is (allegedly) archaic, Ward affirms:

The Hebrew here means “to displace [that is, to ‘cause (something) to move from its proper or usual place’] a boundary mark.” (HALOT/NOAD)

In 1611 “remove” in a context like this meant “to change position; to move a short distance or in a certain direction.” (OED)–just like the Hebrew. That sense, however, is marked as “Obsolete” in the OED.

Today, “remove” means to “take (something) away or off from the position occupied” or to “eliminate or get rid of” (NOAD).

However, the Dictionary of Classical Hebrew defines the Hebrew word here (in the tense used, the Hiphil) as follows:

Hi. 6.0.9 Pf. Q ‏הסיג‎; impf. 2ms ‏תַּסִּיג‎ (‏תַּסֵּג‎); ptc. ‏מַסִּיג‎, ‏מַסִּיגֵי‎ (Q ‏מסגי‎, ‏משיגי‎); inf. cstr. ‏הסיג—1a. remove, move back, <SUBJ> Israel(ites) Dt 1914, seducer of wife 4QInstrb 2.46; subj. not specified, Pr 2228 2310 4QInstrb 2.38. <OBJ> גְּבוּל border Dt 1914 Pr 2228 2310 4QInstrb 2.38 2.46. <COLL> סוג hi. :: גבל set a border Dt 1914.

b. ptc. as noun, one who removes a boundary, <SUBJ> ארר pass. be cursed Dt 2717, דבר pi. speak CD 520, נבא ni. prophesy CD 520, עמד stand CD 520, שׁוב hi. cause to turn CD 520, תעה hi. cause to err CD 520. <CSTR> מַסִּיג גְּבוּל remover of a border Dt 2717, מַסִּיגֵי removers of Ho 510=CD 1915 4QDa 14 CD 520 (הגבול; =4QDa 3.27 גבול) 4Q424 39, משיגי הגב[ו]ל removers of the border 4QDf 12; כול מסיגי all the removers of 4Q424 39. <PREP> לְ of benefit, to, for 4Q424 39; introducing object 4QDa 14; כְּ as, like, + היה be Ho 510=CD 1915.

2. remove, carry away, intrans., <SUBJ> Israel(ites) Mc 614 (or em. תַּסֵּג you shall carry away to ‏תַּשֵּׂג you shall reach, i.e. increase wealth; or em. ‏תִּסָּגֵר you shall be delivered up, i.e. ‏סגר ni.; unless סוג II hi. surround with fence). <COLL> סוג hi. || פלט hi. save Mc 614.

Note that this standard Hebrew lexicon–volume 1 of which was published in 1993–includes the actual English word “remove” in its definition of this word, but, supposedly, the KJV’s “remove” in Proverbs 22:28 is archaic. Has English changed a great deal since 1993, so that this Hebrew dictionary includes this alleged archaism, “remove”?  Note as well that more than one of the options in Dr. Ward’s questionnaire would both fit the meaning of the Hebrew word and the English word.

Thus, his survey includes at least this allegedly “archaic” word in the KJV that is not archaic.  The word is defined as “remove” in modern times in a modern standard Hebrew lexicon (one that, I might add, is never cited anywhere in Dr. Ward’s quiz–maybe he should have studied the Hebrew text a bit more carefully before producing his test, or at least before publishing it and making claims that are easily shown to be inaccurate.)

I am wondering if it is possible to get more information about who these people are. Are they Baptists? Are they people who believe in justification by works or baptismal regeneration and do not even have the Holy Spirit, as one finds even among various denominational “Baptist” groups if one goes house to house regularly in evangelism? Would they claim to be fundamentalists?

Who these people are is rather important. Dr. Ward said that only 7% of them knew the differences between “thee/thou/thy” as singular in the KJV and “ye/you” as plural.  What?  Seven percent?  Who are these people?  In our church the preachers all know, the adults are instructed, the children are instructed, and it is even in Bible study #1 in our evangelistic Bible study series. 93% of those who took his survey did not know this?  Are his survey results verifiable, reproducible, and falsifiable–or are they none of the above?  Why should we trust them?

Let me note that Mark Ward’s solution to people not knowing the difference between thee/thou/thy and ye/you is not to instruct them in the difference–it is to reject the KJV so that they are reading some modern version where you can NEVER know the difference.  Quite a solution, no?

5.) I would be interested if you have done anything to encourage KJVO saints to do something like read KJVs that have the (small number of) archaic words defined in the margin of their Bibles, as do many study Bibles, the Defined KJV, etc.

I would love to find out I am wrong, but I think he has done exactly nothing to encourage saints who are going to cleave to their KJVs to understand them better by having them read editions of the Authorized Version where the archaic words are defined in the margin.  I will applaud Dr. Ward when he donates the profits from his book against exclusive use of the KJV to purchasing copies of works that define its archaic words, such as David Cloud’s Believer’s Bible Dictionary, and donating those books to KJVO Christians.  But I am not holding my breath.

If not, could you explain why you believe such a solution to your “false friends” idea is insufficient, and why what needs to be done is to replace the KJV with a multiplicity of modern versions that do things like take “hell” out of the Old Testament and replace it with that easy to understand and commonly used word “Sheol,” or attack the classical doctrine of the Trinity by changing the Son from being “only begotten” to being “unique,” or change the Son’s going forth from the Father in His eternal generation from being “from everlasting” to the Arian “from ancient days,” and so on, that would be appreciated. If you do not appreciate such changes in modern versions, I am wondering if you have any written sources or videos warning about them.

I am aware of exactly nothing written or taught by Dr. Ward warning about any of these serious corruptions–really evil “false friends”–in many modern Bible versions.  Nor am I aware of Dr. Ward ever explaining why such a solution is more than sufficient to deal with the small number of KJV archaisms–just like there was not one word of criticism of Dr. James White’s inaccurate claims, the ones I was actually dealing with, in my video “Is the King James Version (KJV) Too Hard to Understand? James White / Thomas Ross Debate Review 11.”  Only KJVO people deserve criticism, it appears.

 

I at least would rather have a Bible that teaches Athanasian Trinitarianism but uses “conversation” in an older sense meaning “conduct” than a Bible that has a nice new “conduct” translation but undermines the holy Trinity in some verses (while, thankfully, still supporting it in others).

Wouldn’t you?

Also, please feel free to get in touch with me if you ever change your mind about being willing to publicly dialogue or debate on this matter.

I have offered to debate him multiple times and he has refused.  Could it be that his position is not defensible in open debate?  Could it be that his whole case would fall apart if he had to do what Christ and the Apostles did in the Gospels and Acts, namely, debate and refute their opponents face-to-face?

I happen to think there would be more profit from a face-to-face encounter where we both have equal time to present our case than there is in your producing videos on your YouTube channel that are mainly preaching to your choir while I do the same on my KJB1611 channel with videos that will mainly be watched by people who are already convinced of the perfect preservation of Scripture. Finally, thank you for complementing me as being “super intelligent.” That was very kind of you. The “very dangerous” part, maybe not so much, but I suppose we can’t have everything. I am not planning to respond to any comments here, as I am not convinced that YouTube comments are the best place to engage in scholarly discussion, but I will look forward to hearing from you if you are able to answer my questions. Thanks again, Thomas

Dr. Ward did respond to my comment as follows:

Ross has said he won’t reply here. So I’ll reply to just two items for the sake of my viewers. (No reply on nos. 1, 2, and 5.)

Why do you think he does not want to answer questions #1, 2, and 5?  It isn’t because I won’t reply on his YouTube channel in the comment section.  Doesn’t he want me to have the best and most accurate information for when I actually respond to him, God willing?  Surely it is not because he does not have a good answer to those questions.  Right?

3. I mentioned in the video that I was offering my thoughts as a reader of the Greek New Testament; I self-consciously chose not to cite authorities here.

Does he cite authorities somewhere else, then?  Where?  Anywhere?  I thought it was interesting that after I asked this question in part 2 of his three part series, in part 3 he mentioned that he had started reading a book on Hebrew discourse analysis.  Great, good for him.  He never said a word about my actual question–how much of the Hebrew Old Testament itself, and Greek New Testament itself, has he actually read?

4. All of the information I am able to release publicly about the participants in the study is available at kjbstudyproject.com, on the Demographic Data page that is linked in the main navigational menu. I refer interested viewers there.

The demographic data seems to indicate that the people who took his survey were not Mormons or Oneness Pentecostals, if the people who took the survey told the truth.  So that is useful, and I appreciate that he pointed that out.  But there is still something very wonky with his survey results.  And, of course, we have no way of verifying, corroborating, or falsifying that whatever people said in the survey is actually the truth.  Dr. Ward claimed his survey was “definitive,” when it is incredibly far from anything of the kind.  But I do appreciate him pointing to that “Demographic Data” page, even though I wish he had taken the time to make sure that words like “remove” are actually archaic by spending just a bit longer looking at standard Hebrew lexica before putting his survey out.

Let me end this blog post by reiterating that, while his attempt to deal with my Biblically-based case for the English of the KJV is solely reactive, in that he never thought of actually seeing what God’s objective standard is for Bible translation by looking at the language level in Scripture until I brought this to his attention, by the grace of God, I am thankful if his videos at least get people to start to thinking that way.

Also, again, this is by no means a comprehensive response to his three videos or to his book–just a few thoughts to whet your appetite.

Finally, let me point out that this exchange illustrates why those who believe in the perfect preservation of Scripture and the Authorized, King James Version should learn the Biblical languages, especially if they are spiritual leaders.  The large holes in his argument are much more easily visible if one knows Hebrew and Greek.

TDR

 

 

New List of Reasons for Maximum Certainty for the New Testament Text (Part 3)

ANSWERING AGAIN THE “WHAT TR?” QUESTION

Part One     Part Two

1.  God Inspired Specific, Exact Words, and All of Them.
2.  After God Inspired, Inscripturated, or Gave His Words, All of Them, to His People through His Institutions, He Kept Preserving Each of Them and All of Them According to His Promises of Preservation.
3.  God Promised Preservation of the Words in the Language They Were Written, or In Other Words, He Preserved Exactly What He Gave.
4.  God’s Promise of Keeping and Preserving His Words Means the Availability of His Words to Every Generation of Believers.

Introduction for Point 5, the Next Point

Long ago, I completed the answering of every question from opponents on the issue of preservation, versions, etc.  Nothing new has arisen for many years.   What keeps me writing is the accusation that our side does not answer questions.  I have written long, very complete answers.  The norm of the opposition focuses on one little piece of an answer and takes it out of context.  This happens in a lot of debate situations, so I understand it.

This series of posts again tries to help someone understand, who still doesn’t.  The writing through the years has helped some.  They’ve testified of that.  For most though, they don’t care.  It seems like a waste of time to keep talking to them.

My Approach for this Series

My approach for this series of posts is presenting scriptural principles, presuppositions, or promises as premises to a conclusion.  I could further show how that these points represent historical biblical doctrine, interpretation, or application, but I won’t for this series.  I’ve done that many times.  I want to keep it simple here.

What I’m writing for this series, I’ve never seen from the critical text and modern version side.  I still have not read a work that attempts to lay out a doctrine or biblical defense of naturalistic textual criticism to prove it is the historical Christian position.  None do that because it’s absent from scripture.  I’m not a reconstructionist like him, but I agree with this statement by R. J. Rushdoony:

Consider what happens when the Received Text is set aside and scholars give us their reconstruction of the text. The truth of revelation has thereby passed from the hand of God into the hands of men. Scholars then establish the true reading in terms of their presuppositions…The denial of the Received Text enables the scholar to play god over God. The determination of the correct word is now a scholar’s province and task. The Holy Spirit is no longer the giver and preserver of the biblical text: it is the scholar, the textual scholar.

The critical text and modern version side just takes shots at our positions.  They have written several books like this, among the notable by D. A. Carson, James White, faculty from notable Bob Jones University grads, and then the Central Baptist Theological Seminary faculty.  They don’t show biblical presuppositions or a presence in historical theology, because they don’t exist.

Without further adieu, I continue.

5.  God the Holy Spirit, the Third Person of the Trinity, Used the Church to Accredit or Confirm What Is Scripture and What Is Not.

In 2017, I wrote the following:

Evangelicals and fundamentalists argue for the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit.  This is important to them.  With the qualities of canonical books present, how would the church recognize them?  Because men are depraved, they couldn’t assess the divine qualities of canonical books except by the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit.  This is not as private revelation, but to help people overcome the effects of sin so that they might distinguish actual scripture. Even evangelicals believe that the consensus of the church is a key indicator of which books are canonical.

Scripture has divine qualities characteristic of its author, the Holy Spirit.  The Holy Spirit indwells believers.  Believers respond to what the Holy Spirit wrote, because He knows what He wrote.  That’s how the argument goes.  The Holy Spirit was not only at work in the origination of the Bible, but He also is at work within the people who receive the Bible.  Donald Bloesch writes (p. 150, Holy Scriptures):
Scripture is a product of the inspiring work of the Spirit, who guided the writers to give a reliable testimony to God’s self-revelation in Jesus Christ. Its canonizing is to be attributed to the illumining work of the Spirit, who led . . . . the church to assent to what the Spirit had already authorized.
Spiritually Discerned
The Apostle Paul says that the things of the Spirit of God are spiritually discerned (1 Corinthians 2:14). God gives something to believers through the indwelling Holy Spirit to discern spiritual things. This is not mysticism.  It fits with what Jesus told His disciples in John 16:13:
Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
Unity of the Spirit

Saints of the first century knew the books the Holy Spirit inspired and the ones He didn’t. They copied the ones He inspired. They received those as the Word of God. The saints agreed on what the books and the words were. They copied and distributed them.

The agreement of the saints or of true churches resulted in a multitude of almost identical copies. As history passed the printing press era, they agreed or settled on the text of the Bible. One could and should call the agreement, “the unity of the Spirit” (Ephesians 4:3). What is that?

Every true believer possesses the Holy Spirit in him. He guides, leads, reproves, teaches, etc. The Holy Spirit will not on the inside of a believer lead, guide, or teach in a different way. He won’t contradict Himself. He is One.

The same Holy Spirit, Who inspired the Words of God, knows those Words still. He does not need to reinspire Words. Instead, He can direct His people to the correct one, when a copyist errs. The churches for hundreds of years did not agree on the critical text. That text did not make its way to God’s people. They received the, well, received text. They thought that the work of the Holy Spirit.

What I just wrote above is not mysticism. It is what we read in scripture. It is how we see the Holy Spirit work. Providence and the inward testimony of the Holy Spirit fulfilled God’s promise of preservation.

Historical Agreement

Related to the above, The Westminster Confession of Faith of 1646 reads:

 V. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverent esteem of the holy Scripture; and the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man’s salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it doth abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God; yet, notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit, bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts.

The Gallican Confession (1559) reads:

We know these books to be canonical, and the sure rule of our faith, not so much by the common accord and consent of the Church, as by the testimony and inward illumination of the Holy Spirit, which enables us to distinguish them from other ecclesiastical books.

Thiessen wrote in his Introduction to the New Testament:

The Holy Spirit, given to the Church, quickened holy instincts, aided discernment between the genuine and the spurious, and thus led to gradual, harmonious, and in the end unanimous conclusions. There was in the Church what a modern divine has happily termed an ‘inspiration of selection’.

All the above statements fall within the teaching of many different scriptures on the Holy Spirit and the Words of God.  The Holy Spirit leads through the agreement of His people.  This is a reason Paul tells Timothy that the church is the pillar and ground of the truth (1 Timothy 3:15).

How Does The Testimony of the Holy Spirit Work?

When believers recognize the work of the Holy Spirit, they attest to scriptural presuppositions, principles, and promises.  Those will not contradict the Holy Spirit.  This is the meaning of testing whether something is of the Holy Spirit.  Naturalistic explanations don’t pass the test.

A true church is the temple of the Holy Spirit.  The unity of Spirit is seen in the agreement of a true church.  Churches received the received text (the textus receptus).  At the end of an era, they agreed to stop publishing editions of the textus receptus.  Was that the Holy Spirit testifying through the churches that believed and practiced the Bible?  This fits the scriptural teaching and the model.

This principle, presupposition, or promise of the inward testimony of the Holy Spirit is not the only one of these.  It is crucial though.

More to Come

Q, Synoptic Gospel Dependence, and Inspiration for the Bible

Does it matter if one adopts a belief in “Q” and rejects the historic belief that the synoptic gospels–Matthew, Mark, and Luke–are independent accounts? What happens if one rejects this historic belief for the theory, invented by theological liberalism and modernism but adopted by many modern evangelicals, that Mark was the first gospel (instead of Matthew), and Matthew and Luke depended on and altered Mark, using a (lost) source called “Q” that just happens to have left no archaeological or historical evidence for its existence? What happens if we adopt source, tradition, and redaction criticism? Let me illustrate with the comment on Matthew 25:46 in John Nolland, The Gospel of Matthew: A Commentary on the Greek Text, New International Greek Testament Commentary (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 2005), 1034–1037.  Nolland is discussing how to go behind the text of Matthew’s Gospel to what the historical Jesus said (which he assumes is different); he is discussing what Matthew added and changed from what Christ originally said, which, supposedly, was handed down in little bits of tradition here and there, and which Matthew used, along with his dependence upon Mark and Q. I have added a few comments in brackets within Nolland’s commentary.

While the account has a totally comprehensible sense in its Matthean use, various unevennesses and tensions suggest a complicated history. At various points there seem to be Matthean accents and even quite Matthean features. [In other words, Matthew added and changed what the Son of God said.] … On the basis of the tensions and difficulties [which are not really there] in the account many scholars have held that Matthew has cobbled this account together [what a nice description] out of traditional fragments and OT resources. Others would be prepared to identify a remnant of a parable in vv. 32c–33 and a significant fragment of tradition in vv. 35–36. But perhaps even this is too pessimistic. [Perhaps? We aren’t sure?]

We have had cause to notice that the king in various of Jesus’ parables was originally God, but he has become Jesus himself in secondary use of the parable. [The Watchtower Society and the Unitarians would be delighted.] This is likely to be true of all three of the immediately preceding parables. In the other cases the adjustment is likely to be pre-Matthean, but this time it may be Matthew himself who is responsible for the change.

Without vv. 31–32a, ‘by my Father’ in v. 34, and ‘my brothers and sisters’ in v. 40, the account could be focussed on God and not on Jesus. [Note how he is willing to cut out portions of the Word.] With some brief, now-lost beginning to introduce the king, the restored parable is free of the tensions and difficulties that have been identified in the Matthean account. With the loss of vv. 31–32a the account will be of the eschatological judgment of Israel rather than of all nations. So we can now make sense of the unquestioning recognition of the status of the king by those on the left and the assumption that they would have served him if it had been visible to them that that was what was involved. Both those on the left and the right are Israelites who in principle recognised God as their ultimate king. … Various other Matthean features noted above may also betray his intervention, [of course, all of what he is saying is speculative.] but these do not disturb the basic functioning of the narrative. … Matthew has bundled a lot of cross referencing into his account [in other words, he assumes Christ did not refer back to His earlier teaching, but Matthew changed it so that it referenced back to earlier passages] in a manner reminiscent of his development of 9:27–31. It remains an open question whether the fourfold repetition of the list is a pre-Matthean feature. It is reminiscent of the repetition involved in the inclusion of 25:16–18, which was judged above to be pre-Matthean but not original. [“Not original” means Christ did not actually say it.]

The pre-Matthean account that emerges is still not a parable, only an account of the judgment that makes use of a comparison (if this is not Matthean) and speaks of God as ‘the king’. But could there be a genuine parable further behind this? A lot depends on the missing beginning. But the other places where the narrative world of a parable about a king is broken are vv. 34, 41, and 46, and we would have to give up ‘your brothers and sisters’ suggested above for the pre-Matthean account. A possible beginning sentence for a parable might be something like ‘There was a king who entered into judgment with his people’ (all the future tenses of the account would need then to become past tenses). If in v. 34 ‘Come, you blessed ones’ was followed by something more appropriate to the narrative world, and similar adjustments were made to v. 41, then the narrative world of a parable would be complete (while v. 46 completes the narrative logic, it is not strictly necessary, but it could be adjusted in a corresponding manner).

There is one important proviso here to describing both the Matthean and, behind that, the immediately pre-Matthean account as ‘an account of the judgment’. We have already noted the tension between 24:31 and 13:41, where the angels respectively gather the elect and take off the wicked to punishment. Mt. 25:31–46 offers a different picture again. Not the angels, but Jesus/God acting like a shepherd makes the division himself (perhaps the angels might be used for the initial gathering), and the two groups are arranged on either side of him. … The further along this track behind the Matthean material we go, the more our account of it becomes necessarily speculative. [My note:  No kidding!] But there appears to be no insurmountable barrier to tracing the origins of the Matthean account back to the historical Jesus. And the original that we might attribute to the historical Jesus offers the same challenge about the importance for judgment day of God’s profound self-identification with his people.

Nolland-who is considered “conservative,” not a liberal, by many, and his commentary in the NIGTC series representative of a broadly “evangelical” commentary series–makes the common and unreasonable assumptions that Matthew, who would have been there to here Christ teach and who was controlled by the Holy Spirit, needed to depend upon tiny fragments of tradition passed down here and passed down there by who knows who, and also borrow from Mark (who was not there, like Matthew was). Through this whole process what Christ actually said got changed, and so we need to attempt to reconstruct what Jesus Christ actually said by going behind Matthew’s Gospel to the hypothetical, reconstructed words of the historical Jesus.

This anti-inspiration nonsense affects evangelical apologetics. When I debated Shabir Ally he could not believe that I denied that there was a “Q” document and that the gospels were dependent on each other. Other Christians that Shabir debated accepted that these lies were true.

This sort of anti-inspiration and anti-historical nonsense about Q, sources, and redaction is all over evangelicalism and just about completely controls theological liberalism.  It even infects portions of those who call themselves fundamentalist, chiefly among those who deny the perfect preservation of Scripture and so are not King James Only. Beware of “evangelical” commentaries on the Gospels and “evangelical” leaders who adopt critical methods and deny the Biblically faithful and historically accurate view that the synoptic gospels are independent accounts and give us eyewitness testimony.

TDR

AUTHORS OF THE BLOG

  • Kent Brandenburg
  • Thomas Ross

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