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How Can There Be Any Sin in Sincere? Mark Ward Strikes Again

Mark Ward made a video about me, and then SharperIron linked to it with my name.  Is this a case of my living rent free in Mark’s head?  I don’t know.  I’m fine with his letting it go.  He can’t do it though.  Maybe I’m bringing him more audience.  His numbers go up when he uses me in his presentations.  They go way up.  The terminology is “clickbait.”

In this edition of the Mark Ward show, he says that I helped prove his point about his “false friends” in the King James Version.  He titles the episode:  “Let a Leading KJV-Onlyist Teach You a False Friend!”  Oh so clever, Mark Ward, the Snidley Whiplash of Multiple Version Onlyists.  Yet, “Curses, foiled again!”  Foiled again, because Dudley Do-Right of TR Onlyism is of course not in fact jumping on the Snidley false friend train track.  What happened?

1 Peter 2:2

For many years, I have used and still use 1 Peter 2:2 as a major Christian worldview reference and helping understand the word “sincere.”  Mark says “sincere” now is a bad translation in 1 Peter 2:2 and a “false friend.”  I ask, “How can there be any sin in sincere?”  Answer:  By stretching the truth.

Mark dug deep into this blog to find a post and an exchange in the comment section as the highlight of his program.  Here is 1 Peter 2:2:

As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby.

I’ve referred to “the sincere milk” many times as the “pure mother’s milk” (here, here, here, here, and here among other places).  Ward says “sincere” is a false friend to a reader of the King James Version, because sincere means something different today than it did in 1611 (or 1769).  Instead, he says (and says that I say) it means “pure.”  He reports that I think it should mean pure too, but because I’m KJVO, I won’t admit that, even though I believe it.  He’s saying I’m not sincere about sincere.

Sincere Milk

Welcome to the Snidley Whiplash mindreading class, SW101.  I said that “sincere milk” is not common language for today.  It isn’t.  Almost nobody would know what that means without explanation.  Perhaps people knew better in 1611.  Still, I don’t think another translation today would be better than “sincere” in 1 Peter 2:2.  “Pure milk” doesn’t get it done.  It misses the point of that expression in the original language.  I talk about the meaning in the comment section of the post to which Ward referred:

The mother’s milk goes to her baby without any other intervention, no human intervention, straight from mom to baby, unlike other milk. God changes us through revelation, not through our discoveries. With God and His Word there is no variableness or shadow of turning. His Word and God are not relative as is everything else. It comes direct and so undiluted or affected unlike our eyewitness or findings. We can’t trust these lying eyes or that there hasn’t been some kind of intervention in nature. This is why faith is superior to human discovery, because it depends on God.

The sincerity, the purity, is that it comes as one, which is the meaning of the Latin “sin,” one. There is oneness to the nature of God and to His revelation. It is entirely cohesive, non-contradictory, not mixed with any kind of error.

Mark Ward doesn’t include this part in his presentation.  Why do I think “sincere” is still a good translation that needs no update in 1 Peter 2:2?

Pure or Sincere?

Play On Words

The Greek word translated “sincere” is adolos.  The “a” portion of the Greek word means “no.”  It’s called an alpha privative, expressing negation or absence.  The previous verse, 1 Peter 2:1, uses dolos, the King James translators translated it guile.  Guile could also mean deception.  I believe there is a purposeful play on words by Peter between dolos and adolos, emphasizing the contrast between the speakings of men and the speakings of God.  The speakings of men have dolos and the speakings of God have adolos.

Does adolos strictly mean “pure”?  No.  Sincerity conveys that someone speaks without deception, the error that enters into the speech or writing for a man-engendered reason.  “Pure” doesn’t communicate that.  In this sense, when the modern translators translate adolos as “pure,” that’s a false friend to those who read the word.

Meaning of Pure

In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus says in Matthew 5:8:

Blessed are the pure in heart: for they shall see God.

Is “pure” here adolos?  Is it without guile or not deceptive?  No.  This is the Greek word katharoi.  An English word that comes from this is “katharsis.”  This is what people think when they hear “pure” today.   Yet, that’s not what Peter is saying in 1 Peter 2:2, that the Word of God is pure in that sense.

What I thought and wrote in the one post to which Mark Ward refers is that “sincere milk” is the “pure mother’s milk.”  That is different than saying it is “pure milk.”  He says that I wrote that “sincere” means “pure.”  I wasn’t saying that and I didn’t say that, which is why I believe Mark Ward left off the latter context of what I wrote and really focused on my reference to the Oxford English Dictionary.  He isn’t sincere about my position ironically.  That adulterates his commentary on what I wrote.

Christian Worldview

From a Christian worldview standpoint, God’s Word is revelation so it goes from God directly to the hearer like a breast-fed baby gets his milk directly from his mother.  There is no intermediary.  Evidence on the other hand involves, one, someone’s lying or deceived eyes, and, two, a context that is not neutral.  I like to the say that the crime scene is contaminated.

When human beings look at evidence, they don’t see it clearly.  God’s Word or will, therefore, can’t come through human discovery, but through the direct undiluted revelation of God.  Revelation by nature is non-discoverable or else it wouldn’t be revelation.  Revelation is “sincere milk.”

“Sincere” is still the best translation, but we also still have to explain it.  If we translated adolos “pure,” that would more likely, I believe, lead someone astray on the meaning of the word, a false friend to the one reading it.  I really do think this and Snidley Whiplash, someone who rejects the perfect preservation of scripture, misrepresents me on this.  He’s a false friend to me.

Me a King James Onlyist?

I want to say one more thing about what Mark Ward does.  He also deceives his audience by calling me a leading King James Onlyist.  Calling someone King James Only, he knows is a pejorative.  Mark Ward knows that double inspirationists (Ruckmanites) and English preservationists don’t see me as a leading King James Onlyist.  Why?  Based on the most fair understanding of that label, I’m not.  Why not?

One,

I  believe that translations should come from the original language texts, the Hebrew and Greek, not from the English.  That means that I vouch for translations that are not the King James Version.  Hence, I’m not King James Only.  True King James Onlyists won’t do that and don’t believe that.

Two,

I do not reject an update of the King James Version.  The only ones who do not know that are those who read misrepresentations from people like Mark Ward.  I believe preservation is found in the original language text from which an update would come and did come in 1769 already.  We do not use the 1611 today.  An update already occurred.  How could I be against that?

Three,

I don’t think an update of the King James Version is wrong, so I also think some words in the King James Version are archaic or out-of-use.  I’ve said this again and again.  It doesn’t mean I support an update.  I have other reasons why I want to keep the King James Version.  The main one is its underlying textual differences between the King James and modern versions, something Mark Ward says he won’t debate.

Four,

I say all the time that I think someone could make a different translation of certain words in the King James Version.  Someone could translate the Hebrew and Greek words in a different way and they’d be right.  The translation of the King James isn’t the only way or ways to translate the original language text.  I know I would make different choices than the King James translators, but that doesn’t mean I think they’re wrong either.

A False Friend

When I study the Bible, I study the original languages.  False friends don’t occur to me, because I’m studying the words in their original languages.  I also know because of studying the original languages that translated words very often are false friends.  Mark Ward exaggerates the importance of these words.  He treats himself like he’s come upon something highly significant.  He hasn’t.  I don’t think his point about false friends means nothing, but there are greater concerns by far than these.

Mark Ward is a false friend about the King James Version.  He poses like he really wants to help those who use it.  I don’t see it.  By far, he’s a greater danger because of the doubt he casts upon the BIble that people use.  He relishes those who start using a contemporary translation that varies from the underlying text of the King James Version vastly more than the total number of false friends he reports.

King James Bible & Sam Gipp, Peter Ruckman & Gail Riplinger

Who is King James Only Advocate Sam Gipp?

Sam Gipp is an extremist defender of the King James Bible (also known as the King James Version or Authorized Version) of 1611 (KJB / KJV / AV).  Gipp has been heavily influenced by the “Baptist” heretic Peter Ruckman, having graduated from Ruckman’s Bible institute, and having received an honorary doctorate from Ruckman’s educational institution. His views are also very similar to those of Ms. Gail Riplinger.  Thus, Sam Gipp is a representative of Ruckman’s brand of King James Onlyism (KJVO).

While I strongly disagree with Mr. Gipp on his Ruckmanism, I am thankful that he preaches the gospel, as far as I know, and I trust that people have been born again through his preaching.  I rejoice that there will be people in heaven who are there because the Spirit used the Word through the (very!) imperfect vessel of a Ruckmanite preacher (Mark 9:38-39; Philippians 1:15-18).

Sam Gipp Peter Ruckman Pensacola Bible Institute honorary doctorate
Gipp Receiving His Honorary Th. D. from Ruckman

I do not know if Mr. Gipp agrees with Ruckman’s gospel-corrupting heresy that people in different periods of time have been and will be saved by faith and works together, although if Gipp does not agree with it, he certainly does not separate from and plainly warn about Peter Ruckman’s false gospel and tell everyone to separate from Ruckman and his many heresies and blasphemiesGipp does follow Ruckman in calling black people “nig–r”; he calls on white people to start regularly using this inappropriate term for blacks. He also makes foolish statements that undermine the gospel and will cause unbiblical offense (Mark 9:42), such as: “I hope you racists enjoyed this racist rant by a fellow racist. Tell your racist friends about it.” (Sam Gipp, “‘Racist’ the New ‘N-word,’ August 1, 2020. Bold print reproduced from the original.)

Dr. Gipp also agrees with Ruckman’s unbiblical KJVO extremism.  For example, in Gipp’s Answer Book, he says:  “The King James Version we have today … is the very word of God preserved for us in the English language. The authority for its veracity lies not … in the Greek Received Text” (pg. 24; note that the KJV is not said to be authoritative because it accurately translates the ultimately authoritative Greek text, but is allegedly authoritative independent of the Greek Received Text.). “QUESTION #30: The King James Bible is a mere translation from Greek to English. A translation can’t be as good as the originals, can it? ANSWER: A translation cannot only be “as good” as the originals, but better” (pg. 69; the humorous and embarrassingly bad reason provided is that when Enoch and others were “translated” to heaven, they were better afterwards than before, along with two other texts where the English word “translation” appears that have absolutely nothing to do with rendering the Bible from one language to another.). People should be “convinced that the King James Bible is the infallible Word of God” and therefore “remove those little so called ‘nuggets’ from the imperfect Greek” (pg. 115) to study only the English of the King James Version.  Gipp’s Answer Book offers many words of praise for Peter Ruckman (pg. 89) but not one syllable of warning.

Sam Gipp: Ruckmanite Extremism

I recently was at an event where Christians from a variety of backgrounds were present.  I was able to have a conversation with a sincere Christian man who, unfortunately,  had been strongly influenced by Sam Gipp’s view on the King James Bible.  (I would not be surprised if he simply wanted to have certainty about Scripture rather than really being excited about Ruckman’s claims of alien breeding facilities run by the government, Ruckman’s carnal language, and so on.)  A friend of mine mentioned to him that I had debated James White on the King James Version.  This brother in Christ asked me what I thought of Gipp.  I said I would be happy to debate him, too.  (That was the Biblically faithful answer, but not the answer this Christian brother wanted to hear, I suspect.)  I would indeed be happy to debate Dr. Gipp on a proposition such as:  “Because God has preserved His Word in the English language, study of the Greek and Hebrew texts of Scripture is detrimental or, at best, useless.” If Gipp will affirm this, I will deny it in any venue that is, within reason, mutually agreeable to both of us.  I can be reached through the “contact us” page here if Dr. Gipp is open.

This Christian brother influenced by Mr. Gipp proceeded to argue that nobody really knew Greek, because it is a dead language.  He seemed to think that there is no reason to look at the Greek and Hebrew texts of Scripture (a conclusion also advocated by fellow KJVO radical Ms. Gail Riplinger in her book Hazardous Materials: Greek and Hebrew Study Dangers).

Gail Riplinger New Age Bible Versions KJV KJB AV King James Version Only KJVO
KJV extremist Gail Riplinger

When I asked this sincere Christian brother if he knew where the actual Greek words spoken by Christ and recorded by Matthew, Mark, and the other New Testament writers. were, he said that he did not know where the Greek words of the New Testament were; but he believed the King James Version was perfect.  This Christian man referred to an argument made by Gipp in his Answer Book allegedly proving that agapao and phileo have “absolutely NO DIFFERENCE” (pg. 93, Answer Book–capitalization in the original) in meaning because it is not easy to backtranslate them from English into Greek, and, therefore, there is no need to look at Greek for anything (pgs. 93-94). What Gipp’s argument actually proves is that backtranslating is no easy matter and that the phileo and agapao word groups have significant overlap in their semantic domain; the leap from conclusions about these specific words to the conclusion that Greek is useless is breathtaking and totally without merit, of course. One could, with the same argument, prove that clearly distinct Hebrew and Greek words for miracles are absolutely synonymous, or prove that any number of other words that have overlap in their semantic domains actually have “absolutely NO DIFFERENCE” in meaning.

Sam Gipp’s Ruckmanism is Wrong Because It Violates Scripture

There are a number of reasons why I disagreed with my dear brother and his advocacy of Ruckmanism as filtered through Sam Gipp.

First, and most importantly, his position is unscriptural. It denies the perfect preservation of Scripture, instead arguing for a sort of restoration of an unknown and lost Bible.  When the Lord Jesus said:

Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God (Matthew 4:4).

He was teaching that man must live by every single one of the Hebrew and Greek words that were penned by Moses, the Old Testament prophets, and (proleptically) by the New Testament apostles.  The Lord Jesus was not talking about English words when He spoke Matthew 4:4 in Greek.  When Isaiah 59:21 says that God’s Words would be in the mouths of every generation of the saints from the time that they were inspired and forever into the future, the Holy Ghost through Isaiah was not making a promise about English words.  The words that were in the mouths and in the hearts of the saints, near them and not far off (Romans 10:6-9; Deuteronomy 30) were not English words, but Hebrew and Greek words (and, of course, a little bit of Aramaic).  When David and his greater Son rejoiced in the pure words of God that would be preserved forever (Psalm 12:6-7), He was speaking about Hebrew words, not English words.  Hebrew has jots and tittles (Matthew 5:18)–the Lord speaks of the smallest Hebrew consonant, the yod, and the smallest Hebrew mark on the page, the vowel chireq (a single dot; consider also the Hebrew accents).  When this Christian brother said that he did not know where the Greek and Hebrew words of God were, he was denying the perfect preservation of Scripture.  Ruckmanism is too weak on the preservation of Scripture.

Second, the Ruckmanism of Ruckman, Gipp, and Riplinger, which denies that one should utilize Hebrew and Greek, changes God’s glorious and beautiful revelation into hiddenness.  God is not hiding Himself in His Hebrew and Greek words.  He is, in ineffable beauty and glory, revealing Himself.  To downplay in any way the very words chosen by the Father, spoken by Christ, and dictated by the Holy Spirit through the original authors of Scripture is wrong, wrong, wrong.  It is 100% wrong to say that we should not look at or study those words.  No, we must love them, trust in them, read them, memorize them, meditate upon them, and (if necessary) die for them.  I do not doubt the sincerity of my Christian brother who was influenced by Gipp, but it is wickedness to downplay in any way the actual words spoken by the Holy Spirit because of something as ridiculous as the fact that Enoch was better off when he was “translated.”

The two reasons above are the most important ones.  Ruckmanism violates Scripture’s promises of preservation and changes the original language words that were the delight of our sinless Savior upon earth, and for which the New Testament Christians were willing to die, into a closed book.

Ruckmanism is Wrong Because It Simply Is Not True

There are also many other reasons why Ruckman, Gipp, and Riplinger are wrong when they tell people not to look at the Greek and Hebrew texts of Scripture.  There actually are many “wondrous things” (Psalm 119:18) that God has placed in the Greek and Hebrew texts of Scripture for His children’s instruction and delight, from puns to elements of poetry to syntactical structural markers and discourse elements, that do not show up in even a perfectly accurate English translation.  (You can see many of these in my study on why learning Greek and Hebrew is valuable, especially for Christian leaders).  Unfortunately, Sam Gipp in his Answer Book does not even acknowledge, much less deal with, these facts.  He assumes that ascribing value to Greek and Hebrew necessarily means the English of the Authorized Version is inaccurate, when that simply does not follow.  For example, consider Acts 5:34-42:

34 Then stood there up one in the council, a Pharisee, named Gamaliel, a doctor of the law, had in reputation among all the people, and commanded to put the apostles forth a little space; 35 And said unto them, Ye men of Israel, take heed to yourselves what ye intend to do as touching these men. 36 For before these days rose up Theudas, boasting himself to be somebody; to whom a number of men, about four hundred, joined themselves: who was slain; and all, as many as obeyed him, were scattered, and brought to nought. 37 After this man rose up Judas of Galilee in the days of the taxing, and drew away much people after him: he also perished; and all, even as many as obeyed him, were dispersed. 38 And now I say unto you, Refrain from these men, and let them alone: for if this counsel or this work be of men, it will come to nought: 39 But if it be of God, ye cannot overthrow it; lest haply ye be found even to fight against God. 40 And to him they agreed: and when they had called the apostles, and beaten them, they commanded that they should not speak in the name of Jesus, and let them go. 41 And they departed from the presence of the council, rejoicing that they were counted worthy to suffer shame for his name. 42 And daily in the temple, and in every house, they ceased not to teach and preach Jesus Christ.

:34 ἀναστὰς δέ τις ἐν τῷ συνεδρίῳ Φαρισαῖος, ὀνόματι Γαμαλιήλ, νομοδιδάσκαλος, τίμιος παντὶ τῷ λαῷ, ἐκέλευσεν ἔξω βραχύ τι τοὺς ἀποστόλους ποιῆσαι. 35 εἶπέ τε πρὸς αὐτούς, Ἄνδρες Ἰσραηλῖται, προσέχετε ἑαυτοῖς ἐπὶ τοῖς ἀνθρώποις τούτοις, τί μέλλετε πράσσειν. 36 πρὸ γὰρ τούτων τῶν ἡμερῶν ἀνέστη Θευδᾶς, λέγων εἶναί τινα ἑαυτόν, ᾧ προσεκολλήθη ἀριθμὸς ἀνδρῶν ὡσεὶ τετρακοσίων· ὃς ἀνῃρέθη, καὶ πάντες ὅσοι ἐπείθοντο αὐτῷ διελύθησαν καὶ ἐγένοντο εἰς οὐδέν. 37 μετὰ τοῦτον ἀνέστη Ἰούδας ὁ Γαλιλαῖος ἐν ταῖς ἡμέραις τῆς ἀπογραφῆς, καὶ ἀπέστησε λαὸν ἱκανὸν ὀπίσω αὐτοῦ· κἀκεῖνος ἀπώλετο, καὶ πάντες ὅσοι ἐπείθοντο αὐτῷ διεσκορπίσθησαν. 38 καὶ τὰ νῦν λέγω ὑμῖν, ἀπόστητε ἀπὸ τῶν ἀνθρώπων τούτων, καὶ ἐάσατε αὐτούς· ὅτι ἐὰν ᾖ ἐξ ἀνθρώπων ἡ βουλὴ αὕτη ἢ τὸ ἔργον τοῦτο, καταλυθήσεται· 39 εἰ δὲ ἐκ Θεοῦ ἐστιν, οὐ δύνασθε καταλῦσαι αὐτό, μήποτε καὶ θεομάχοι εὑρεθῆτε. 40 ἐπείσθησαν δὲ αὐτῷ· καὶ προσκαλεσάμενοι τοὺς ἀποστόλους, δείραντες παρήγγειλαν μὴ λαλεῖν ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματι τοῦ Ἰησοῦ, καὶ ἀπέλυσαν αὐτούς.41 οἱ μὲν οὖν ἐπορεύοντο χαίροντες ἀπὸ προσώπου τοῦ συνεδρίου, ὅτι ὑπὲρ τοῦ ὀνόματος αὐτοῦ κατηξιώθησαν ἀτιμασθῆναι.42 πᾶσάν τε ἡμέραν, ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ καὶ κατ’ οἶκον, οὐκ ἐπαύοντο διδάσκοντες καὶ εὐαγγελιζόμενοι Ἰησοῦν τὸν Χριστόν.

In this passage, Gamaliel makes the famous statement that if the Christian religion “be of men, it will come to nought: but if it be of God, ye cannot overthrow it; lest haply ye be found even to fight against God.”  The translation in the King James Version is perfectly accurate.  However, Greek has several different ways to express the conditional idea of an “if” clause.  A Greek 1st class conditional clause assumes the reality of the condition, while a Greek 3rd class conditional clause ranges from probability to possibility; it is the difference between a petite woman struggling with heavy groceries telling a muscular body builder, “If you are so strong, help me!” (that would be a Greek 1st class conditional) and one of two evenly-matched boxers in a ring saying, “If I win our boxing match, I will be the champion” (which would be expressed using a Greek 3rd class conditional).  In Acts 5, Gamaliel’s “if this counsel or this work be of men” is a Greek 3rd class conditional clause, while “if it be of God …” is a 1st class conditional.  Gamaliel’s balancing a 3rd class with a 1st class conditional clause indicates that he assumes–correctly–that what the Apostles was preaching was actually from God, and the Jewish leadership could not overthrow it–indeed, attempting to do so was to fight against God.

There is nothing wrong with the KJV’s translation of this passage–English simply does not have different words for “if” like Greek does, and that is not the KJV translators’ fault.  The Authorized Version is perfectly accurate, but there still is value in studying the Greek words dictated by the Holy Ghost through Luke.  Is this a  question of a major doctrine?  No, of course not.  But does it affect how an expository preacher explains this passage?  Yes.  Why should the hungry children of God not have everything that their Father wants for them?  Why should some of the food the Good Shepherd has for His little lambs in the infallible Greek words of the Book of Acts be kept from them?

The argument of my Christian brother that nobody really knows Koine Greek because it is a dead language (Hebrew seems to be left out of this argument, as it is the living tongue of the nation of Israel) is also invalid.  Imagine if someone in China is born again and then adopts a Ruckmanite view of the King James Version.  He does not care if he learns to engage in conversation in English–he just wants to read the KJV.  His goal is to read a particular written text, not to gain conversational ability.  He does a lot of work and becomes fluent in reading Elizabethan English, progressing to the point where he can sight-read and translate into Chinese large portions of the KJV, although he never takes the time to learn how to, say, order a hamburger at McDonalds or talk about the weather tomorrow.  Would a Ruckmanite say that this person really does not know English?  Would he not say that he has learned what is by far the most important thing in English–learning to read the Bible?  Would he say that this Chinese Christian should not use the KJV to shed light on his Chinese Bible?  No, he would be completely in favor of this Chinese Christian comparing his Chinese Bible with the King James Version.

Let us say that this same Chinese Christian, as a result of carefully studying his King James Bible, discovers that he should not set aside Greek or Hebrew.  He reads verses like:  “If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha” (1 Corinthians 16:22) and realizes that the KJV itself, by transliterating instead of translating “Anathema” and “Maranatha,” is calling on him to look at the original language text.  He therefore learns Greek the same way he learned English.  He does not care if he can order a gyro in Koine Greek, or talk about a YouTube video in Koine Greek, but he progresses to the point where he can sight-read large portions of the Greek New Testament and translate it into Chinese.  Can we say that this Chinese Christian does not know Greek?  Is it wrong for him to use his knowledge of Greek to gain insight into his Chinese Bible?  How can we say that he can use English to gain insight into his Chinese Bible, but not Greek?

Furthermore, let me add that, if he is starting from scratch, this Chinese Christian would find mastering the Greek of the New Testament easier than achieving fluency in English.  There are the same number of vocabulary words in the Greek New Testament as there are words known by the average four-year-old child, and far fewer words in the Hebrew Old Testament than the average eight-year-old knows.  The simple country farmers that were the large majority of the population in ancient Israel, and the slaves and lower-class people who were the large majority of the members of the first century churches, could understand the Bible in Hebrew and Greek.  Learning the English of the KJV is a harder task (if starting from scratch) than learning the Greek of the New Testament or the Hebrew of the Old Testament.  Because Ruckmanites are–conveniently–overwhelmingly native English speakers, they assume (without proof) that English, with all its irregularities, exceptions, and complications, is an easy language and that Greek and Hebrew are much more difficult, and ask why God would hide his Word in the hard languages of Greek and Hebrew instead of preserving (re-inspiring? re-revealing?) it in the easy English language.  It would actually be more accurate to ask:  “Why would God hide His Word in the difficult language of modern English, instead of preserving it in the easier languages of Koine Greek and Biblical Hebrew?”  What is more, dare we say that God is not allowed to inspire and preserve a perfect, canonical, complete revelation in a language that becomes a dead language?  Has God’s Word failed, because languages change over time?  God forbid!

Believe the Textus Receptus and the King James Bible:

Reject Ruckman, Gipp, and Riplinger

There are many other problems with Ruckmanism.  Reject Ruckman’s heresies on the gospel, Ruckman’s racism, Ruckman’s carnal spirit, and Ruckman’s many other bizzare doctrines and practices.  Reject the extremism on the KJV of Peter Ruckman, Sam Gipp, and Gail Riplinger.  Their indefensible position leads many away from the KJV to embrace modern versions. Instead, believe God’s promises of the perfect preservation of His Words.  The Hebrew and Greek Textus Receptus contain all the words God inspired and preserved.  Since the KJV is a fantastically accurate translation of those inspired and preserved Hebrew and Greek Words–the ultimate and final authority for all Christian faith and practice–its English words are authoritative and have the breath of God on them.  All Christians in the English-speaking world should be King James Only.  None of them should be followers of Peter Ruckman, Sam Gipp, or Gail Riplinger.

TDR

Should Christians Learn Hebrew and Greek? Part 1 of 7

I have composed a work explaining why Christians, and, specifically, Bible-believing, separatist King James Only Baptists should and can learn Hebrew and Greek, the Biblical languages.  View the complete work here.  While my first purpose in writing was to encourage my current crop of students, I believe that this work will be edifying to a broader readership, including those who never learn the Biblical languages.  First, it exposits Biblical principles that relate to this topic, and, as an exposition and application of Scripture, has value.  Second, it exposits a number of specific passages where controversy currently exists, enabling Christians to have Biblical answers in these inspired texts.  Third, it explains the relationship between the original language text dictated by the Holy Spirit through holy men of old and translations.  Can one call translations “inspired,” and if so, in what sense?  Fourth, it answers the unbiblical extremism of Ruckman and Riplinger that is a stain to the advocates of the Textus Receptus and King James Bible.  When peole want to find out what a Biblical word means, it is fine if they want to look at Webster’s English dictionary, but they should definitely be looking at a Hebrew or Greek lexicon, contrary to the advice of false teachers like Mrs. Gail Riplinger.  Fifth, it can encourage Christians to see that learning the Biblical languages is not only desirable, but is an eminently attainable goal.

 

I am not planning to introduce the entire text of my study on these topics into the blog.  I intend to summarize its arguments in several posts.  Please read the actual work itself for more information. Learning Hebrew and Greek are desirable and attainable goals for Christians.

 

Please feel free to comment on this post or the rest of the posts in this series, but kindly read the work I am referencing first.  Thank you.

 

TDR

Yes and Then No, the Bible with Mark Ward (part two)

Earlier this week, I wrote part one concerning two separate videos posted by Mark Ward.  The second one I saw first, and since my name was mentioned, I answered.  He cherry-picks quotes without context.  Ward made what he thought was a good argument against the Textus Receptus.

In part one, I said “yes” to his assessment of IFB preaching.  I didn’t agree, as he concluded, that a correction to preaching was the biggest step for IFB.  A distorted gospel, I believe, is of greater import, something unmentioned by Ward.

NO

Bob Jones Seminary (BJU) invited Ward to teach on problems with the Textus Receptus (received text, TR), the Greek text behind the New Testament (NT) of the King James Version (KJV) and all the other Reformation Era English versions. It was also the basis for all the other language versions of the Bible.  There is only one Bible, and subsequent to the invention of the printing press, we know the TR was the Bible of true believers for four centuries.  Unless the Bible can change, it’s still the Bible.

Ward accepted the invitation from BJU, despite his own commitment against arguing textual criticism with anyone who disagrees with him.   For him to debate, his opposition must agree with his innovative, non-historical or exegetical application of 1 Corinthians 14:9.  It’s the only presupposition that I have heard Ward claim from scripture on this issue.

Critical text supporters, a new and totally different approach to the Bible in all of history, oppose scriptural presuppositions.  They require sola scientia to determine the Bible.  Modern textual criticism, what is all of textual criticism even though men like Ward attempt to reconstruct what believing men did from 1500 to 1800, arose with modernism.  Everything must subject itself to human reason, including the Bible.

In his lecture, Ward used F. H. A. Scrivener to argue against Scrivener’s New Testament, giving the former an alias Henry Ambrose, his two middle names, to argue against Scrivener himself.  It is an obvious sort of mockery of those who use the NT, assuming they don’t know history.  The idea behind it is that Scrivener didn’t even like his Greek NT.

What did Scrivener do?  He collated the Greek text behind the KJV NT from TR editions, and then printed the text underlying the NT of the KJV.   It was an academic exercise for him, not one out of love for the TR.  Scrivener was on the committee to produce the Revised Version.

The Greek Words of the New Testament

Did the words of that New Testament exist before Scrivener’s NT?  Yes.  Very often (and you can google it with my name to find out) I’ll say, “Men translated from something.”  For centuries, they did.

The words of Scrivener were available in print before Scrivener.  Scrivener knew this too, as the differences between the various TR editions are listed in the Scrivener’s Annotated New Testament, a leather bound one of which I own.  Ward says there are massive numbers of differences between the TR editions.  That’s not true.

Like Ward’s pitting Scrivener on Scrivener and the KJV translators against the KJV translation, claiming massive variants between TR editions is but a rhetorical device to propagandize listeners.  The device entertains supporters, but I can’t see it persuading anyone new.  It’s insulting.

When you compare Sinaiticus with Vaticanus, there you see massive differences, enough that Dean Burgon wrote, “It is in fact easier to find two consecutive verses in which these two MSS differ the one from the other, than two consecutive verses in which they entirely agree.”  There are over 3,000 variations between the two main critical manuscripts in the gospels alone.  That is a massive amount.  Moslem Koran apologists enjoy these critical text materials to attack the authority of the Bible.  It is their favorite apologetic device, what I heard from every Moslem I confront at a door in evangelism.

There are 190 differences between Beza 1598 and Scrivener’s.  Scrivener’s is essentially Beza 1598.  Many of those variations are spelling, accents, and breathing marks.  As a preemptive shot, I know that all those fit into an application of jots and tittles.  We know that, but we also know where the text of the King James Version came from and we know that text was available for centuries.  God preserved that text of the NT.  Believers received it and used it.

Men Translated from Something

When you read John Owen, what Greek text was he reading?  He had one.  Ward says there wasn’t a text until Scrivener.  Wrong.  What text did John Gill use?  What text did Jonathan Edwards use?  They relied on an original language text.  What text did John Flavel and Stephen Charnock use?  They all used a Greek text of the New Testament.

16th through 19th century Bible preachers and scholars refer to their Greek New Testament.  Matthew Henry when writing commentary on the New Testament refers to a printed Greek New Testament.  He also writes concerning those leaving out 1 John 5:7:  “Some may be so faulty, as I have an old printed Greek Testament so full of errata, that one would think no critic would establish a various lection thereupon.”

The Greek words of the New Testament were available.  Saints believed they had them and they were the TR.  This reverse engineering, accusation of Ruckmanism, is disinformation by Ward and others.

The Assessment of Scrivener and the Which TR Question

Ward uses the assessment of Scrivener and the preface of the KJV translators as support for continued changes of the Greek text.  This is disingenuous.  The translators did not argue anywhere in the preface for an update of the underlying text.  They said the translation, not the text, could be updated.  That argument does not fit in a session on the Greek text, except to fool the ignorant.

Just because Scrivener collated the Greek words behind the KJV doesn’t mean that he becomes the authority on the doctrine of preservation any more than the translators of the KJV.  It grasps at straws.  I haven’t heard Scrivener used as a source of support for the Textus Receptus any time ever.  I don’t quote him.  If there is a critique, it should be on whether Scrivener’s text does represent the underlying text of the KJV, and if it does, it serves its purpose.

I have written on the “Which TR question” already many times, the most used argument by those in the debate for the critical text.  It’s also a reason why we didn’t answer that question in our book, Thou Shalt Keep Them.  If we addressed it, that would have been all anyone talked about.  We say, deal with the passages on preservation first.  We get our position from scripture.

I digress for one moment.  Ward talks and acts as if no one has heard, which TR, and no one has ever answered it.  Not only has that question been answered many times, but Ward himself has been answered.  He said only Peter Van Kleeck had answered, which he did with a paper available onlineVincent Krivda did also.

The position I and others take isn’t that God would preserve His Words in Scrivener’s.  The position is that all the Words are preserved and available to every generation of Christian.  That’s why we support the Textus Receptus.

Ward never explains why men point to Scrivener’s.  I have answered that question many times, but he doesn’t state the answer.  He stated only the position of Peter Van Kleeck, because he had a clever comeback concerning sanctification.  But even that misrepresented what Van Kleeck wrote.

The position I take, which fits also the position of John Owen, I call the canonicity argument. I have a whole chapter in TSKT on that argument.  I’ve written about it many times here, going back almost two decades.

If pinned to the wall, and I must answer which TR edition, I say Scrivener’s, but it doesn’t even relate to my belief on the doctrine.  What I believe is that all of God’s Words in the language in which they were written have been available to every generation of believer.  I don’t argue that they were all available in one manuscript (hand-written copy) that made its way down through history.  The Bible doesn’t promise that.

Scriptural Presuppositions or Not?

The critical text position, that Ward takes, cannot be defended from scripture.  The position that I take arises from what scripture teaches.  It’s the same position as believed by the authors of the Westminster Confession, London Baptist Confession, and every other confession.  That is accepted and promoted by those in his associations.

Ward doesn’t even believe the historical doctrine of preservation. Textual variations sunk that for him, much like it did Bart Ehrman.  Ward changed his presupposition not based upon scripture, but based upon what he thought he could see.  It isn’t by faith that he understands this issue.

Some news out of Ward’s speech is that he doesn’t believe that God preserved every word of the Bible.  He says he believes the “preponderance of the manuscripts” view. I call it “the buried text view.”  Supporters speculate the exact text exists somewhere, a major reason why Daniel Wallace continues looking.  That is not preservation.

“The manuscripts” are an ambiguous, sort of chimera to their supporters.  They don’t think they have them yet, so how could there be the preponderance of anything yet?  That view, the one supported by two books by BJU authors, From the Mind of God to the Mind of Man and God’s Word in Our Hands, they themselves do not believe.  Ward walked it back during his speech too.  They don’t really believe it.  It’s a hypothetical to them.  Men of the two above books don’t believe at least that they possess the Hebrew words of 1 Samuel 13:1 in any existing manuscript.  At present, like a Ruckmanite, they correct the Hebrew text with a Greek translation.

In the comment section of the above first video, Ward counsels someone in the comment section to use a modern translation from the TR, such the NKJV.  The NKJV, Ward knows, doesn’t come from the TR.  There are variations from the TR used in the NKJV, a concession that Ward made in a post in his comment section after being shown 20-25 examples.  He wrote this:

First the concession: I am compelled to acknowledge that the NKJV does not use “*precisely* the same Greek New Testament” text as the one underlying the KJV NT.

He could not find 2 John 1:7 of the NKJV in any TR edition.  Does it matter?  It does, especially a translation that calls itself the NEW King James Version.  The translators did not use the same text as the KJV used, however Ward wants to represent that.  I would happily debate him on the subject.  I’m sure Thomas Ross would.

Mark Ward has committed not to debate on the text behind the KJV.  He is committed now to taking shots from afar, leaving the safe shores of vernacular translation to hit on the text.  Even though he says the variations do not affect the message of the Bible, he continues to argue against the text behind the King James Version.

John 3:36, the Second “Believeth” (Apeitheo), and English Translation of the Bible

The King James Version (KJV) of John 3:36 reads:

He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

The English Standard Version (ESV) reads:

Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life; whoever does not obey the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God remains on him.

When you read the two, you see a few differences, one major one that may or may not affect or change doctrine, that being “he that believeth not the Son” versus “whoever does not obey the Son.”  Which is the better translation or right?  Or are they both right?
When you read the English of the KJV, you might think that the first “believeth” and the second “believeth” are the same Greek words translated into the same English word.  That makes sense.  However, they are not the same Greek words.  The first “believeth” translates pisteuo and the second, “believeth not,” translates apeitheo.  For that reason, the ESV and the NASV translate it “does not obey” and the NIV translates it “rejects.”
Can apeitheo be translated “believeth not”?  Why would the KJV translators not translate apeitheo differently than pisteuo?  How much does this translational difference matter?
In a very, very long post in which he mocks those who use the King James only, Mark Ward treats the difference very seriously, like a good reason to change the King James translation.  You can know with great certainty that the King James translators knew that these were two different words in John 3:36.  They, however, still translated them the same, “believeth.”
The modern version translators also sometimes translate apeitheo with “believe” and not “obey.”  The next example of its usage is Acts 14:2 and all the modern versions translate it “unbelieving,” “disbelieve,” and “refused to believe,” the same as the KJV, “unbelieving.”  They do not translate, “not obey” or “disobey.”   The very next usage is Acts 19:9.  The ESV translates the imperfect, “continued in unbelief,” the NIV, “refused to believe,” the KJV, “believed not,” and the NASV alone, “disobedient.”
In Romans 2:8, like all the modern versions, the KJV translates it, “do not obey.”  I give you this last example because, it shows that the KJV translators knew they could translate apeitheo, “do not obey,” rather than, “believeth not.”  In 1 Peter 3:1, the KJV and the modern versions translate apeitheo, “obey not,” but the NIV translates it, “believe not.”
Here’s what Friberg Lexicon, a modern lexicon, says apeitheo means:

(1) in relation to God disobey, be disobedient (RO 11.30); (2) of the most severe form of disobedience, in relation to the gospel message disbelieve, refuse to believe, be an unbeliever.

Thayer writes in his lexicon:

not to allow oneself to be persuaded; not to comply with; a. to refuse or withhold belief

The typical or normal Greek word translated “obey” in the New Testament is hupakouo.  akouo is normally translated, “to hear,” but with the addition of the prefix hupo, it means “to obey.”  Forms of that word are translated 21 times in the New Testament.  It is the word used in Ephesians 6:1, “Children, obey your parents.”  It is always translated, “obey.”
The Greek word peitho without the “a” prefix of apeitheo is translated “persuaded” in Matthew 27:20, the first usage in the New Testament, and the KJV and the modern versions all translate it, “persuaded.”  If persuasion is negated, it would be “not persuaded.”  If someone is persuaded, he believes.  In Matthew 27:43, all the versions translate peitho, “trusts.”  “Persuaded,” “convinced,” and “trusted” are normal understanding of peitho.  You can see this in the translation in all the versions in its 55 usages in the New Testament.
When apeitheo appears in the Septuagint, the Hebrew word is translated a majority of the times “rebelled” or “rebellious” (Dt 1:26, 9:7, 23, 24, 21:20; Josh 1:18; Ps 68:18; Is 1:23, 36:5, 50:5, 63:10, 65:2; Ez 3:27), which is compatible with “unbelief.”
In the near context of John 3:36, John the Baptist preaches the superiority of the Lord Jesus Christ to his disciples, so they’ll follow Jesus and not John.  In verse 28, John says, “I am not the Christ.”  The gospel of John testifies that Jesus is the Christ.  Why?  So that people will believe that Jesus is the Christ and have eternal life (John 20:30-31).  “The Christ” is the Messiah, a Kingly figure.  John’s disciples needed to believe in Jesus Christ, that is, submit to Him, follow Him, or obey Him as the Christ.  This is the same as believing in Jesus Christ and not being rebellious against Christ.  Louw-Nida Lexicon, another modern lexicon, says concerning apeitheo:  “unwillingness or refusal to comply with the demands of some authority.”  This is not the same as “not obey.”  It is a description of unbelief, especially referring to Jesus as Messiah, the Christ, in the context.
Jesus gives testimony or witness as to why He is the Messiah.  John argues for this. He wants people to be persuaded by the testimony or witness of Jesus and his own testimony or witness.  The greatest reason is that someone is granted everlasting life if he believes or is persuaded by the evidence or testimony or witness.  In the near context, apeitheo means, “believeth not.”  It is an example of a good translation.
The greater context of John presents the plan of salvation, the gospel.  In the context of the gospel, apeitheo means, “believeth not.”  Lexicons make note of this.  Those not persuaded that Jesus was the Christ by the evidence and the testimony were not believing He was the Son, Who had come from heaven.  The Son points back to many Old Testament Messianic allusions, including Genesis 3:16, Genesis 12:1-3, 2 Samuel 7:12-14, Isaiah 7:14, and Isaiah 9:6.
When preaching, I believe it is good to let people know that the second “believeth” of John 3:36 is a different Greek word.  It expands on the understanding of the English word “believeth,” which is more than intellectual, but also volitional.  Someone cannot remain rebellious against the Son, not be submitting himself to the Son, the Christ, and have everlasting life.
If the translators had translated apeitheo, “obeyeth not,” that would have resulted in a lot more necessary explaining.  Today, it would be regularly used to argue for works salvation by those who teach that.  They would say, “You’re saved by obeying the Son. So, if you don’t obey Him, you won’t have eternal life.”  On the other hand, “believing” is not in contradiction to “obeying.”  Unsaved people are said to “obey not the gospel of God” (1 Pet 4:17), and “obey not” translated apeitheo.
I was thinking about translators translating two different Greek words with the same English word in the same verse.  One came to mind, James 1:17:  “Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above.”  The two words translated “gift” are two different Greek words, dosis and dorema.  They have two different nuances of meaning.  The ESV translates it identically to the KJV.  The NIV doesn’t even translate the first “gift, so it’s translation is “every good and perfect gift,” as if there weren’t even two words used.  The NASV seems to take in the difference, “every good thing given and every perfect gift.”
The difference between the two Greek words is that dosis puts an emphasis on the giving of the thing and dorema on the thing given.  The use of both words elevates the praise to the giving and gifts of and from God the Father.  The NASV tries to show that difference, but I think very few people would catch the difference in the mere reading.  There are two different adjectives used too, “good” and “perfect.”  I know that this occurs elsewhere in the New Testament, two different Greek words translated with the same English word.  I believe someone should rely on the original language understanding to define them.  It’s very difficult for the meaning to show up in an English word.  This will happen.
Ward strains so much to argue for modern versions from John 3:36, that I’m concerned he could pull or tear a muscle.  It’s not worth 9 pages and over 4,500 words, like he uses.  Let us rejoice that by the grace and providence of God the King James translators knew what they were doing in John 3:36 for the evangelism and then edification of English speaking people.  May you be edified by reading this post in contrast to the fear and unbelief caused by that of Ward.

AUTHORS OF THE BLOG

  • Kent Brandenburg
  • Thomas Ross

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