Ruth 3:15, in the widely-used 1769 revision of the King James Bible, reads:

“Also he said, Bring the vail that thou hast upon thee, and hold it. And when she held it, he measured six measures of barley, and laid it on her: and she went into the city.”

However, the 1611 edition of the KJV reads:

“And he said, Bring the vaile that thou hast vpon thee, and holde it.  And when she helde it, he measured sixe measures of barley, and laide it on her: and he went into the citie.”

Scrivener’s 1873 edition of the KJV likewise reads:  “Also he said, Bring the vail that thou hast upon thee, and hold it. And when she held it, he measured six measures of barley, and laid it on her: and he went into the city” (The Cambridge Paragraph Bible: Of the Authorized English Version [Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1873], Ru 3:15.)

The New King James Version-which is not just a new King James Version, and which here does not follow the 1611 KJV’s reading-has “she”:

 Also he said, “Bring the shawl that is on you and hold it.” And when she held it, he measured six ephahs of barley, and laid it on her. Then she went into the city. (NKJV)

Other modern Bible versions are likewise divided between “he” and “she.” For example, the NIV and NRSV read “he,” while the ESV, LSB, and NASB read “she.”

Which is correct? How do we know? We have discussed various features of the Hebrew Massoretic text on this blog before, such as whether the Hebrew of the name “Jehovah” hints at the incarnation of the Son of God.  What do Hebrew manuscripts and Hebrew printed texts read?  What about the LXX, the various editions of the Latin Vulgate, other ancient sources, and English Bibles before the KJV?  The picture below, from the Hebrew Textus Receptus, the Masoretic text edited by the Hebrew Christian Jacob ben Chayyim, gives the answer (Matthew 5:18):

While both readings in Ruth 3:15 are doubtless factually accurate, since both Boaz and Ruth actually entered the city, the inspired reading, the one dictated by the Holy Spirit to the original penman of Scripture, is “he,” not “she.” Why? Please read my analysis of the passage in this link to find out, and feel free to comment upon it here (but please read it first before commenting). Thank you.

–TDR