Support for the KJV
We know the King James Version translators (KJVT) in 2 Timothy 3:16 italicized “is” in “is given” because no verb exists in the text of that verse. They gave the verse a smoother reading, but they were also telling the reader that verb did not exist. That’s why they used the italics. I have no problem with what they did, and I’m not correcting it.
I like the KJVT translation of 2 Timothy 3:16. Even though they used eight English words to translate three Greek ones and they supplied “is” twice, I support all that. I like it and support it more than most of my critics, who might say I’m correcting the KJV. In fact, they correct the KJV. They also mangle 2 Timothy 3:16 and read into it something not said by God in the verse.
Gnomic Present
The KJVT wrote, “All scripture is given by inspiration of God.” They knew there were multiple usages of the present tense, one of them a “Gnomic Present.” Matthew 7:17 is an example of the Gnomic Present, which says, “Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit.” The KJVT used the Gnomic Present in their translation of 2 Timothy 3:16.
The Gnomic Present expresses a general truth without reference to time. That perfectly communicates the three Greek words to begin 2 Timothy 3:16. That general truth is that all scripture, sacred scripture, is given by inspiration of God. That includes every word and all of them from Genesis to Revelation in the language in which they were written.
Here are some other general truths said in Gnomic fashion. No scripture is given in English. All scripture is given in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.
Is Given By Inspiration of God
The canon of scripture closed with the last Greek word of the book of Revelation at the end of the first century AD. God stopped giving scripture. Jude characterizes scripture in Jude 1:3 as “the faith which was once delivered unto the saints.” “Once” means “once for all.” “Was delivered” is aorist tense, so completed action. “The faith” is the complete body of God’s truth, which Jesus says is sacred scripture (John 17:17). Once God completes delivering the faith, which He did with the book of Revelation, then it is over. That completed for all time all inspired writing delivered by God.
English wasn’t a language in the first century. God didn’t give any more sacred scripture after the first century. With the completion of sacred scripture, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek were the only languages in which God gave sacred scripture.
Notice that the KJVT write, “given.” Their translation says sacred scripture is given by inspiration. It is not translated by inspiration. Do you believe in the translation of 2 Timothy 3:16? Many seem to take an entirely different doctrine of inspiration of scripture than the KJVT did.
Not Changing Sacred Scripture
I’m not advocating changing a word in the KJV. However, if someone changes a word in the KJV, he is not changing sacred scripture. No one should charge him for that. He is changing a translation of sacred scripture. It is why the KJVT called their work, a “version.” It is a version. I quote the definition of “version” from the fabulous Webster’s 1828 Dictionary:
3. The act of translating; the rendering of thoughts or ideas expressed in one language, into words of like signification in another language. How long was Pope engaged in the version of Homer?
4. Translation; that which is rendered from another language. We have a good version of the Scriptures. There is a good version of Pentateuch in Samaritan.
The publishers of the Textus Receptus do not call it a “version.” It isn’t a translation. They call it Novum Testamentum, which is Latin for “New Testament.” Men translate from these Greek texts into the English and other languages.
Men changed the words of the King James Version in 1769. They didn’t change scripture. They changed the English translation of the same original language text. Scripture doesn’t change. Translations of scripture do change.
“I’m not advocating changing a word in the KJV. However, if someone changes a word in the KJV, he is not changing sacred scripture”
The first sentence written is the heart of a bible believer. History and preservation teaches us that the English text of the King James Bible (not version) is the wholly preserved and inspired (not double inspiration) Holy Bible for the church today.
The second sentence will allow anyone to change “sacred” scripture if that scripture is not given by inspiration.
That is what they have been doing for hundreds of years and 220+ English translations later.
Therefore, I am assuming that you mean what you say by your first sentence.
If so, why do I need any Greek or Hebrew if every word of God is pure?
Anonymous,
I truly do not understand this statement: “History and preservation teaches us that the English text of the King James Bible (not version) is the wholly preserved and inspired (not double inspiration) Holy Bible for the church today.” It mixes up very technical scriptural, bibliological terminology to make the doctrine indecipherable.
I’m saying that graphe means sacred scripture in many of its usages.
At the same time, accurate translations are necessary and sufficient for evangelism and edification.
God promised to preserve what is given by inspiration of God. God preserved what He inspired, which is a Hebrew OT and Greek NT. He did that in fulfillment of HIs promise. You can say you don’t need that, but God said He would preserve His Word(s).
“I’m saying that graphe means sacred scripture in many of its usages.”
It does not mean “sacred” scripture. It just means writings which is what the scriptures are.
“In the Bible, that term refers specifically to the text given by God or the written text God breathed.”
That is implied on your part and makes no sense scripturally. God did not breath any “text” of God to anyone. We know God spoke “in the whirlwind” (Job 38-41) and probably Elihu wrote down what God spoke. Can you prove it was a dictation? Not according to the following:
The bible says, “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” (2Pe 1:21)
These were men that prophesied for God who were moved “in their spirit” (Job 32:8) by inspiration of the Holy Ghost of God to write down what was in their hearts and mind. The Lord God did not give them a dictation to follow, but rather he used them (different from one another) to pen inspired words.
Therefore, he used translators in the same way to pen inspired words based on inspired words in different forms (Greek, Hebrew, Latin, Syriac, etc.) whether texts, manuscripts, miniscules, majuscules (uncials), and even other English texts. The inspired words of these different forms are not found anywhere in one book, except in the inspired English text of the KJB.
Anonymous,
I sometimes accept anonymous comments, but not always. My policy has been sometimes to deny or disapprove of anonymous comments, and your comments are indicative of why I do this. I’m going to answer your last comments, but this will be it for you, unless you identify yourself for everyone. Everyone knows who we are.
You in dogmatic fashion say that “scripture” only means writings. No doubt sacred scriptures are writings. Graphe means writings. However, words often mean something different in their context. I’m saying that in 2 Timothy 3:16 the writings are not just some ambiguous writings. They are God’s Words, so sacred scripture.
Yes, the word theopneustos means “God breathed,” so yes God breathed out His very Words to human authors unto their completion in writing. God moved upon men to write what He breathed out. You refer to Job 28:1 and 40:6, “Then the LORD answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said.” That sounds like God breathed out, spoke to Job.
I get where you’re going. Inspiration still wasn’t complete, because God continue to breathe out other words through the King James Translators. I’ve already indicated the problem with that, and you’ve not answered it. Revelation ends with a settled text, nothing to be added or taken away.
Kent,
This is going to be my last comment. Why beat a dead horse, which are dead languages of Greek and Hebrew not used by the Lord God since at least the 13th century!
No wonder Christianity is in the state it is, “For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables”.
Anonymous,
The Hebrew and Greek texts are available for study and for translation. Then you quote a verse that turns the actual doctrine of preservation into “apostasy,” saying that sound doctrine is your Ruckmanite position. You say that the KJV is perfectly preserved, but have no problem with the changing of the words, undermining your own position and clashing with the biblical position. I can only see some kind of conceptual inspiration with you, even on the doctrine of preservation, because the words themselves don’t obviously matter to you. If you can twist the Bible around like that, that’s what causes apostasy.
Brother, you wrote, “The canon of scripture closed with the last Greek word of the book of Revelation at the end of the first century AD. God stopped giving scripture.”
Amen! That comment brought to my mind a point Brother Thomas Ross brought in his debate with James White: “There are mere handfuls of words hundreds of times in the UBS that look like no manuscript on the face of the Earth…” I have recently written on this (though it isn’t scheduled to post to my blog for several weeks. I also recently heard Adam Boyd talk about this on Dwayne Green’s YouTube channel. Though Boyd is an MT guy rather than a TR guy, he nevertheless gave an exceptional illustration (using Matt. 19:29) of this phenomenon, what some people are calling “Frankentext.”
It strikes me also, though, that this phenomenon is (has the effect of) opening the canon and giving us new scripture – scripture that has never before existed. God stopped giving scripture. Text critics have not.
Thanks Robert!